I was informed that there is no limit for attempt you can attend exam more then 3 times ..
the RPSC will mention about it into the their guideline.
for more details visit : www.rpsc.gov.in
Thursday, July 15, 2010
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008 Political Science : Solved Paper
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008
Political Science : Solved Paper
1. Who among the following supported ‘partyless democracy’ ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse Tung
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
2. Who among the following identified democracy with corruption, machine politics and gangsterism ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Laski
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) C. W. Mills
3. Who among the following is associated with the ‘Iron Law of Oligarchy’ ?
(A) Michels
(B) Mosca
(C) Mills
(D) Laski
4. Who among the following gave the concept of ‘mass mind’ ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Mosca
(C) Michels
(D) Gassef
5. A constitutional government stands for—
(A) a limited government
(B) a government run according to the provisions of the constitution
(C) a government run according to the wishes of the rulers
(D) a government run according to the wishes of the party bosses
6. Who said, “Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains.” ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Marx
7. Which one of the following is the main feature of deliberative democracy ?
(A) Parliamentary sovereignty
(B) Executive supremacy
(C) Judicial autonomy
(D) People’s effective participation
8. Which one of the following is not a Political Right ?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to contest election
(C) Right to equality before Law
(D) Right to form a political party
9. Which one of the following is not a state ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Tibet
(D) Iraq
10. Who said, “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.” ?
(A) Engels
(B) Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Trotsky
11. Who among the following was a great supporter of the Divine Theory of Origin of the State ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Hobbes
(D) James I
12. Marx advocated the establishment of a—
(A) Classless society
(B) Stateless society
(C) Casteless society
(D) Classless and Stateless society
13. Marx propounded the theory of class struggle mainly in—
(A) The Economic and Political Manuscript
(B) The Communist Manifesto
(C) Das Capital
(D) The Poverty of Philosophy
14. Which one of the following is not a Civil Right ?
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to speech
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to hold public office
15. Who said, “Socialism in like a hat that has lost its shape, because everybody wears it.” ?
(A) Laski
(B) Joad
(C) Marx
(D) Gandhi
16. Which one of the following is regarded as a landmark event in the development of socialism ?
(A) The Glorious Revolution of 1688
(B) The French Revolution of 1789
(C) The American Declaration of Independence of 1776
(D) The Russian Revolution of 1917
17. Who said, “Means are after all everything. As the means, so the end; there is no walls of separation between means and ends.” ?
(A) Nehru
(B) Marx
(C) Tilak
(D) Gandhi
18. Who called Mahatma Gandhi ‘a half-naked fakir ?
(A) Stalin
(B) Nehru
(C) Roosevelt
(D) Churchill
19. Which one of the following is not a statement of Karl Marx ?
(A) The state will wither away
(B) There will be a classless and stateless society
(C) Capitalism digs its own grave
(D) Globalisation is another form of capitalism
20. Which of the following were the first two states to introduce the Panchayati Raj ?
(A) Rajasthan and Punjab
(B) Rajasthan and Bihar
(C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
21. Marx borrowed Dialectical Method from—
(A) Locke
(B) Rousseau
(C) Hegal
(D) Green
22. In a parliamentary form of government, ministers are appointed by—
(A) the head of the State at his discretion
(B) the head of the government
(C) the legislature
(D) the head of the state on the recommendation of the head of the government
23. Which one of the following is an essential feature of the presidential system ?
(A) Collective responsibility
(B) Fixed term
(C) Accountability to legislature
(D) Nominal head of the state
24. The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary form of Government remain in office—
(A) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the head of the state
(B) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the voters
(C) so long as they fulfill promises made to the electorate
(D) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the popular house of the legislature
25. In a parliamentary system, the accountability of the Prime Minister to the Lower House is—
(A) direct and continuous
(B) indirect
(C) intermittent
(D) only during the sitting of the Lower Hosue
26. Bicameralism is an essential feature of—
(A) Parliamentary system
(B) Presidential system
(C) Federal system
(D) Unitary system
27. Who gave the Slogan of ‘do or die’ in 1942 ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
28. According to Lucian Pye, the elements of political development are—
(A) Participation, integration and industrialization
(B) Political unification, participation and national welfare
(C) Political unification, economic development and national welfare
(D) Equality, capacity and differentiation
29. Who among the following talked of ‘development trap’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Fred Riggs
(C) Myron Weiner
(D) Edward Shils
30. The split between the moderates and the extremists of the Indian National Congress took place at the—
(A) Surat session
(B) Delhi session
(C) Calcutta session
(D) Bombay session
31. The first President of the Indian National Congress was—
(A) A. O. Hume
(B) W. C. Banerjee
(C) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya
32. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(A) It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
(B) It abolished the Federal Court
(C) It introduced bicameralism
(D) It further extended the principle of communal representation
33. Who among the following is an acclaimed analyst of political parties ?
(A) Lasswell
(B) Laski
(C) Huntington
(D) Duverger
34. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of—
(A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
35. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Rajya Sabha alone
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Joint sitting of Parliament
36. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The President of India is elected for a term of five years
(B) He can resign his office by writing under hand addressed to the Prime Minister of India
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit
(D) He shall not be a member of any House of Parliament
37. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Lahore session of the Congress and opted a resolution of Purna Swaraj
(B) Simon Commission was appointed in 1927
(C) Dyarchy was introduced by the 1919 Act
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was elected President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946
38. Who among the following administered the Oath of Office to Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Chief Justice of Federal Court
39. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 ?
(A) It ended the British rule
(B) It provided for the partition of India
(C) It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India
(D) It abolished the office of the Governor-General
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The Union Ministers are appointed by the President of India
(B) They hold office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The President cannot appoint any one not recommended by the Prime Minister
(D) The Constitution provides for individual and collective responsibility of Ministers
41. There is a single Constitution for the Union and the States with the exception of—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Sikkim
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
42. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after—
(A) two years
(B) four years
(C) five years
(D) six years
43. There were two Deputy Prime Ministers during the Prime Ministership of—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V. P. Singh
(D) Chandrashekhar
44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Organisation of the High Courts —Union list
(B) Police —State list
(C) Price control —Concurrent list
(D) Stock exchange —State list
45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Article 17—Abolition of Untouchability
(B) Article 21—Protection of Life and Personal liberty
(C) Article 24—Right to elementary education
(D) Article 29—Protection of culture of minorities
46. Who among the following became the first acting President of India ?
(A) B. D. Jatti
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) M. Hidayatullah
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
47. What is the proper order of the following stages in the enactment of Budget ?
1. Voting of the demands for grants.
2. General discussion.
3. Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(B) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(C) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 3
48. Which one of the following committees does not consist of representatives of both the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
49. Which one of the following is not the jurisdiction of the High Court of a State ?
(A) Original jurisdiction
(B) Appellate jurisdiction
(C) Supervisory jurisdiction
(D) Advisory jurisdiction
50. Who among the following has been Chief Minister for the Longest period ?
(A) Bansilal
(B) N. D. Tiwari
(C) Sheikh Abdullah
(D) Jyoti Basu
51. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of a Minister towards a matter of public importance ?
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Calling attention notice
(C) Half-an-hour discussion
(D) Censure motion
52. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
53. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 45th
(D) 46th
54. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The President of India
(D) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
55. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions suggested the creation of local Finance Commission ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission (I)
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee
56. Sarkaria Commission was set up for reviewing the relations between the—
(A) President and the Prime Minister
(B) Legislature and the Executive
(C) Executive and the Judiciary
(D) Centre and the States
57. The government of which Prime Minister had fallen in the Lok Sabha during debate for want of just one vote ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) V. P. Singh
58. The traditional view of the scope of International Politics does not include the study of—
(A) International Law
(B) International Organisations
(C) Geo-politics
(D) Political Economy
59. Who among the following uses the terms ‘International Relations’ and ‘International Politics’ interchangeably ?
(A) Hans Morgenthau
(B) John Burton
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Palmer and Perkins
60. Which one of the following is not a natural element of power ?
(A) Political parties
(B) Resources
(C) Population
(D) Geography
61. Who is the exponent of Realist Theory ?
(A) Mortan Kaplan
(B) Hans Morgenthau
(C) Martin Shubik
(D) John Burton
62. Who among the following is the exponent of Game theory ?
(A) Martin Shubik
(B) Karl Deutsch
(C) Palmer and Perkins
(D) Joseph Frankel
63. Which one of the following, according to Morgenthau, is not a vital component of national interest ?
(A) Physical identity
(B) Political identity
(C) Cultural identity
(D) Individual identity
64. Which one of the following Committees has admitted the existence of a nexus between the politicians, bureaucrats and criminals ?
(A) Vohra Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Narshimhan Committee
(D) Kripalani Committee
65. C.T.B.T. was signed in—
(A) 1994
(B) 1996
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
66. Which one of the following is not a method of peaceful settlement of disputes ?
(A) Limited arms conflict
(B) Negotiations
(C) Arbitration
(D) Mediation
67. Which one of the following is not a regional organisation ?
(A) NATO
(B) ASEAN
(C) OAU
(D) NPT
68. Which one of the following is not the concern of UNESCO ?
(A) Climate change
(B) Education
(C) Culture
(D) Science
69. The 14th SAARC summit was held at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Beijing
(D) Colombo
70. Who was the first Foreign Minister of India ?
(A) Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Sardar Sawarn Singh
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
71. Which one of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel ?
(A) Non-aggression
(B) Non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
(C) Peaceful co-existence
(D) Promotion of world peace
72. Which one of the following is not the objective of WTO ?
(A) Trade without discrimination
(B) Fair competition
(C) Price control
(D) Market access
73. Who among the following was elected as President of the UN General Assembly in 1953 ?
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(B) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(C) B. N. Chakravarty
(D) Krishna Menon
74. Which one of the following is not an element of Democratic Socialism ?
(A) Welfare state
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Social justice
(D) Revolutionary change
75. Who among the following initially mooted the policy of structural adjustments ?
(A) Third World Countries
(B) Developed Countries
(C) United States of America
(D) IMF and World Bank
76. Who among the following talked of ‘Political decay’ ?
(A) Huntington
(B) David Apter
(C) Organski
(D) Lucian Pye
77. A pressure group works for the welfare of—
(A) Weaker sections of the society
(B) All sections of the society
(C) Its members only
(D) Government employees
78. When did the Charter of the United Nations Organisation come into force ?
(A) 24 October, 1950
(B) 24 October, 1944
(C) 24 October, 1946
(D) 24 October, 1945
79. The oldest approach to the study of Political Science is—
(A) Historical approach
(B) Philosophical approach
(C) Legal approach
(D) Institutional approach
80. Who among the following defines politics in terms of ‘authoritative allocation of values’ ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) Laski
(C) David Easton
(D) Plato
81. “Who gets what, when and how” is the subject matter of politics.
Who among the following held the above view ?
(A) David Easton
(B) Lasswell
(C) Laski
(D) MacIver
82. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism ?
(A) Class struggle
(B) Surplus value
(C) Laissez faire
(D) Materialistic Interpretation of History
83. “The state originated for the bare needs of life and continues in existence for the sake of good life.” These are the words of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Laski
(D) Garner
84. The traditional view of politics is concerned with the study of—
(A) State and Government
(B) Organisations and Groups
(C) Ideologies
(D) Institutions
85. Who among the following is called the ‘Father of Political Science’ ?
(A) Socrates
(B) Plato
(C) Aristotle
(D) Machiavelli
86. “The state is prior to the individual.”
This was the view of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Garner
(D) MacIver
87. Who said that life in the nature of state was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Machiavelli
88. Who among the following supported positive liberty ?
(A) T. H. Green
(B) Karl Marx
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. Laski
89. Which one of the following is not a function of political parties ?
(A) Political socialization
(B) Regulation of behaviour of the people
(C) Interest articulation
(D) Interest aggregation
90. Who among the following regarded right to life, right to liberty and right to property as natural rights ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Mill
91. Who among the following defined law as “a command given by a superior to an inferior” ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Dicey
(D) Bryce
92. Who among the following held the view that equality is unnatural and undesirable ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Gandhi
(D) Laski
93. “Will, not force, is the basis of the state.” These are the words of—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegal
(C) Green
(D) Mill
94. Who among the following is an exponent of popular sovereignty ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Hobbes
(D) Rousseau
95. Austin described the theory of sovereignty in his book—
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Two Treatises on Government
(C) De Republica
(D) Grammar of Politics
96. Who among the following is the author of ‘Aspects of Political Development’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) David Easton
(C) Laski
(D) David Apter
97. According to Herbert Morrison, bureaucracy is the price of—
(A) Monarchy
(B) Federalism
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Parliamentary democracy
98. The traditional home of ‘patronage bureaucracy’ has been—
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) U.K.
99. Which one of the following is not a feature of Max Weber’s theory of bureaucracy ?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Division of work
(C) Promotion
(D) Commitment to ruler
100. Who among the following formulated the most systematic doctrine of sovereignty ?
(A) Grotius
(B) Bodin
(C) Austin
(D) Locke
Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) Right to equality before law is a civil right.
9. (C) Tibet is not a state because it does not possess the sovereignty, which is the most important attribute of state. Although, it has three other attributes of state-government, population and territory.
10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D)
13. (B) The first sentence of the Communist Manifesto, begins with “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.”
14. (D) The right to hold public office is a political right.
15. (B)
16. (D) The Russian Revolution of 1917 was organised by Lenin and was largely based on the ideas of Karl Marx. The Russian Revolution was the first successful socialist revolution in the world, which led to the establishment of the first socialist state in Russia.
17. (D) 18. (D)
19. (D) Globalisation, as a dominant tendency is a phenomenon of late 20th century. This tendency was not visible during Marx’s times.
20. (C) The Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 2nd Oct., 1959 at Nagaur, Rajasthan. Andhra Pradesh also organised Panchayati Raj in 1959 itself. This new pattern of Panchayati Raj was based on the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957.
21. (C)
22. (D) India has adopted the parliamentary form of government. In India, the President is the head of the state and the Prime Minister is the head of the government.
23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (C) Bicameralism denotes the two chambers of the legislature. In federal system, the central legislature consists of two houses. The Upper House consists of the representatives of the states.
27. (D)
28. (D) According to Lucian Pye, the political development is the result of interaction among three elements—level of equality in general political process, capacity of the political system and level of differentiation in the structures of the system.
29. (B) The concept of ‘development trap’ was given by Fred Riggs, which refers to the imbalance between the elements of equality and capacity in the process of political development.
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (B) The Government of India Act, 1935 did not abolish the Federal Court, but provided for the establishment of a Federal Court under the proposed Federation. However, the Federal part of the Act was never enforced. It should be noted that bicameralism at the central level was introduced by the Act of 1919, however, the Act of 1935 introduced bicameralism at provincial level.
33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (B) The President submits his resignation to the Vice-President and vice-versa.
37. (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly whereas, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of Constituent Assembly in 1946.
38. (C) 39. (C)
40. (D) According to Art 75(1), the Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. According to Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. However, Article 75(3) provides for the collective responsibility of the Ministers, not for their individual responsibility.
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C)
46. (B) V. V. Giri was the first acting President from 3 May, 1969 to 20 July, 1969. Thereafter the Chief Justice of Supreme Court, M. Hidayatullah became the acting President from 20 July, 1969 to 24 August, 1969.
47. (A)
48. (A) The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all from Lok Sabha.
49. (D) According to Article 143, the Advisory Jurisdiction is given to the Supreme Court.
50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A)
56. (D) The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in 1983 and it submitted its report on Centre-State relations in 1988.
57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A)
67. (D) NPT or Non-Proliferation treaty, 1968 is a nuclear disarmamemt treaty. It is not an organisation.
68. (A)
69. (A) The 14th SAARC Summit was held on 3-4 April, 2007 and 15th Summit was held on 2-3 August, 2008 at Colombo.
70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (B)
74. (D) Democratic socialism believes in peaceful methods of change. It opposes revolutionary changes and violence.
75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C) 81. (B)
82. (C) The idea of Laissez faire, the non-intervention of State is economic affairs, was given by Adam Smith. This idea is the core of negative liberalism.
83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A)
88. (A) According to Green, the Liberty is the positive power of doing or enjoying something worth doing and enjoying.
89. (B) However, it should be noted that the interest articulation is also not the function of political parties in specific sense. Almond has Stated that interest articulation is the function of pressure groups.
90. (B) 91. (B)
92. (B) Aristotle did not support the idea of equality among people. In fact, he supported the system of slavery.
93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (C)
Political Science : Solved Paper
1. Who among the following supported ‘partyless democracy’ ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse Tung
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
2. Who among the following identified democracy with corruption, machine politics and gangsterism ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Laski
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) C. W. Mills
3. Who among the following is associated with the ‘Iron Law of Oligarchy’ ?
(A) Michels
(B) Mosca
(C) Mills
(D) Laski
4. Who among the following gave the concept of ‘mass mind’ ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Mosca
(C) Michels
(D) Gassef
5. A constitutional government stands for—
(A) a limited government
(B) a government run according to the provisions of the constitution
(C) a government run according to the wishes of the rulers
(D) a government run according to the wishes of the party bosses
6. Who said, “Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains.” ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Marx
7. Which one of the following is the main feature of deliberative democracy ?
(A) Parliamentary sovereignty
(B) Executive supremacy
(C) Judicial autonomy
(D) People’s effective participation
8. Which one of the following is not a Political Right ?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to contest election
(C) Right to equality before Law
(D) Right to form a political party
9. Which one of the following is not a state ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Tibet
(D) Iraq
10. Who said, “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.” ?
(A) Engels
(B) Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Trotsky
11. Who among the following was a great supporter of the Divine Theory of Origin of the State ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Hobbes
(D) James I
12. Marx advocated the establishment of a—
(A) Classless society
(B) Stateless society
(C) Casteless society
(D) Classless and Stateless society
13. Marx propounded the theory of class struggle mainly in—
(A) The Economic and Political Manuscript
(B) The Communist Manifesto
(C) Das Capital
(D) The Poverty of Philosophy
14. Which one of the following is not a Civil Right ?
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to speech
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to hold public office
15. Who said, “Socialism in like a hat that has lost its shape, because everybody wears it.” ?
(A) Laski
(B) Joad
(C) Marx
(D) Gandhi
16. Which one of the following is regarded as a landmark event in the development of socialism ?
(A) The Glorious Revolution of 1688
(B) The French Revolution of 1789
(C) The American Declaration of Independence of 1776
(D) The Russian Revolution of 1917
17. Who said, “Means are after all everything. As the means, so the end; there is no walls of separation between means and ends.” ?
(A) Nehru
(B) Marx
(C) Tilak
(D) Gandhi
18. Who called Mahatma Gandhi ‘a half-naked fakir ?
(A) Stalin
(B) Nehru
(C) Roosevelt
(D) Churchill
19. Which one of the following is not a statement of Karl Marx ?
(A) The state will wither away
(B) There will be a classless and stateless society
(C) Capitalism digs its own grave
(D) Globalisation is another form of capitalism
20. Which of the following were the first two states to introduce the Panchayati Raj ?
(A) Rajasthan and Punjab
(B) Rajasthan and Bihar
(C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
21. Marx borrowed Dialectical Method from—
(A) Locke
(B) Rousseau
(C) Hegal
(D) Green
22. In a parliamentary form of government, ministers are appointed by—
(A) the head of the State at his discretion
(B) the head of the government
(C) the legislature
(D) the head of the state on the recommendation of the head of the government
23. Which one of the following is an essential feature of the presidential system ?
(A) Collective responsibility
(B) Fixed term
(C) Accountability to legislature
(D) Nominal head of the state
24. The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary form of Government remain in office—
(A) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the head of the state
(B) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the voters
(C) so long as they fulfill promises made to the electorate
(D) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the popular house of the legislature
25. In a parliamentary system, the accountability of the Prime Minister to the Lower House is—
(A) direct and continuous
(B) indirect
(C) intermittent
(D) only during the sitting of the Lower Hosue
26. Bicameralism is an essential feature of—
(A) Parliamentary system
(B) Presidential system
(C) Federal system
(D) Unitary system
27. Who gave the Slogan of ‘do or die’ in 1942 ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
28. According to Lucian Pye, the elements of political development are—
(A) Participation, integration and industrialization
(B) Political unification, participation and national welfare
(C) Political unification, economic development and national welfare
(D) Equality, capacity and differentiation
29. Who among the following talked of ‘development trap’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Fred Riggs
(C) Myron Weiner
(D) Edward Shils
30. The split between the moderates and the extremists of the Indian National Congress took place at the—
(A) Surat session
(B) Delhi session
(C) Calcutta session
(D) Bombay session
31. The first President of the Indian National Congress was—
(A) A. O. Hume
(B) W. C. Banerjee
(C) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya
32. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(A) It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
(B) It abolished the Federal Court
(C) It introduced bicameralism
(D) It further extended the principle of communal representation
33. Who among the following is an acclaimed analyst of political parties ?
(A) Lasswell
(B) Laski
(C) Huntington
(D) Duverger
34. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of—
(A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
35. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Rajya Sabha alone
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Joint sitting of Parliament
36. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The President of India is elected for a term of five years
(B) He can resign his office by writing under hand addressed to the Prime Minister of India
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit
(D) He shall not be a member of any House of Parliament
37. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Lahore session of the Congress and opted a resolution of Purna Swaraj
(B) Simon Commission was appointed in 1927
(C) Dyarchy was introduced by the 1919 Act
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was elected President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946
38. Who among the following administered the Oath of Office to Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Chief Justice of Federal Court
39. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 ?
(A) It ended the British rule
(B) It provided for the partition of India
(C) It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India
(D) It abolished the office of the Governor-General
40. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The Union Ministers are appointed by the President of India
(B) They hold office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The President cannot appoint any one not recommended by the Prime Minister
(D) The Constitution provides for individual and collective responsibility of Ministers
41. There is a single Constitution for the Union and the States with the exception of—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Sikkim
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
42. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after—
(A) two years
(B) four years
(C) five years
(D) six years
43. There were two Deputy Prime Ministers during the Prime Ministership of—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V. P. Singh
(D) Chandrashekhar
44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Organisation of the High Courts —Union list
(B) Police —State list
(C) Price control —Concurrent list
(D) Stock exchange —State list
45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Article 17—Abolition of Untouchability
(B) Article 21—Protection of Life and Personal liberty
(C) Article 24—Right to elementary education
(D) Article 29—Protection of culture of minorities
46. Who among the following became the first acting President of India ?
(A) B. D. Jatti
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) M. Hidayatullah
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
47. What is the proper order of the following stages in the enactment of Budget ?
1. Voting of the demands for grants.
2. General discussion.
3. Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(B) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(C) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 3
48. Which one of the following committees does not consist of representatives of both the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
49. Which one of the following is not the jurisdiction of the High Court of a State ?
(A) Original jurisdiction
(B) Appellate jurisdiction
(C) Supervisory jurisdiction
(D) Advisory jurisdiction
50. Who among the following has been Chief Minister for the Longest period ?
(A) Bansilal
(B) N. D. Tiwari
(C) Sheikh Abdullah
(D) Jyoti Basu
51. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of a Minister towards a matter of public importance ?
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Calling attention notice
(C) Half-an-hour discussion
(D) Censure motion
52. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
53. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 45th
(D) 46th
54. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The President of India
(D) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
55. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions suggested the creation of local Finance Commission ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission (I)
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee
56. Sarkaria Commission was set up for reviewing the relations between the—
(A) President and the Prime Minister
(B) Legislature and the Executive
(C) Executive and the Judiciary
(D) Centre and the States
57. The government of which Prime Minister had fallen in the Lok Sabha during debate for want of just one vote ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) V. P. Singh
58. The traditional view of the scope of International Politics does not include the study of—
(A) International Law
(B) International Organisations
(C) Geo-politics
(D) Political Economy
59. Who among the following uses the terms ‘International Relations’ and ‘International Politics’ interchangeably ?
(A) Hans Morgenthau
(B) John Burton
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Palmer and Perkins
60. Which one of the following is not a natural element of power ?
(A) Political parties
(B) Resources
(C) Population
(D) Geography
61. Who is the exponent of Realist Theory ?
(A) Mortan Kaplan
(B) Hans Morgenthau
(C) Martin Shubik
(D) John Burton
62. Who among the following is the exponent of Game theory ?
(A) Martin Shubik
(B) Karl Deutsch
(C) Palmer and Perkins
(D) Joseph Frankel
63. Which one of the following, according to Morgenthau, is not a vital component of national interest ?
(A) Physical identity
(B) Political identity
(C) Cultural identity
(D) Individual identity
64. Which one of the following Committees has admitted the existence of a nexus between the politicians, bureaucrats and criminals ?
(A) Vohra Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Narshimhan Committee
(D) Kripalani Committee
65. C.T.B.T. was signed in—
(A) 1994
(B) 1996
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
66. Which one of the following is not a method of peaceful settlement of disputes ?
(A) Limited arms conflict
(B) Negotiations
(C) Arbitration
(D) Mediation
67. Which one of the following is not a regional organisation ?
(A) NATO
(B) ASEAN
(C) OAU
(D) NPT
68. Which one of the following is not the concern of UNESCO ?
(A) Climate change
(B) Education
(C) Culture
(D) Science
69. The 14th SAARC summit was held at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Beijing
(D) Colombo
70. Who was the first Foreign Minister of India ?
(A) Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Sardar Sawarn Singh
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
71. Which one of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel ?
(A) Non-aggression
(B) Non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
(C) Peaceful co-existence
(D) Promotion of world peace
72. Which one of the following is not the objective of WTO ?
(A) Trade without discrimination
(B) Fair competition
(C) Price control
(D) Market access
73. Who among the following was elected as President of the UN General Assembly in 1953 ?
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(B) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(C) B. N. Chakravarty
(D) Krishna Menon
74. Which one of the following is not an element of Democratic Socialism ?
(A) Welfare state
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Social justice
(D) Revolutionary change
75. Who among the following initially mooted the policy of structural adjustments ?
(A) Third World Countries
(B) Developed Countries
(C) United States of America
(D) IMF and World Bank
76. Who among the following talked of ‘Political decay’ ?
(A) Huntington
(B) David Apter
(C) Organski
(D) Lucian Pye
77. A pressure group works for the welfare of—
(A) Weaker sections of the society
(B) All sections of the society
(C) Its members only
(D) Government employees
78. When did the Charter of the United Nations Organisation come into force ?
(A) 24 October, 1950
(B) 24 October, 1944
(C) 24 October, 1946
(D) 24 October, 1945
79. The oldest approach to the study of Political Science is—
(A) Historical approach
(B) Philosophical approach
(C) Legal approach
(D) Institutional approach
80. Who among the following defines politics in terms of ‘authoritative allocation of values’ ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) Laski
(C) David Easton
(D) Plato
81. “Who gets what, when and how” is the subject matter of politics.
Who among the following held the above view ?
(A) David Easton
(B) Lasswell
(C) Laski
(D) MacIver
82. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism ?
(A) Class struggle
(B) Surplus value
(C) Laissez faire
(D) Materialistic Interpretation of History
83. “The state originated for the bare needs of life and continues in existence for the sake of good life.” These are the words of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Laski
(D) Garner
84. The traditional view of politics is concerned with the study of—
(A) State and Government
(B) Organisations and Groups
(C) Ideologies
(D) Institutions
85. Who among the following is called the ‘Father of Political Science’ ?
(A) Socrates
(B) Plato
(C) Aristotle
(D) Machiavelli
86. “The state is prior to the individual.”
This was the view of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Garner
(D) MacIver
87. Who said that life in the nature of state was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Machiavelli
88. Who among the following supported positive liberty ?
(A) T. H. Green
(B) Karl Marx
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. Laski
89. Which one of the following is not a function of political parties ?
(A) Political socialization
(B) Regulation of behaviour of the people
(C) Interest articulation
(D) Interest aggregation
90. Who among the following regarded right to life, right to liberty and right to property as natural rights ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Mill
91. Who among the following defined law as “a command given by a superior to an inferior” ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Dicey
(D) Bryce
92. Who among the following held the view that equality is unnatural and undesirable ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Gandhi
(D) Laski
93. “Will, not force, is the basis of the state.” These are the words of—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegal
(C) Green
(D) Mill
94. Who among the following is an exponent of popular sovereignty ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Hobbes
(D) Rousseau
95. Austin described the theory of sovereignty in his book—
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Two Treatises on Government
(C) De Republica
(D) Grammar of Politics
96. Who among the following is the author of ‘Aspects of Political Development’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) David Easton
(C) Laski
(D) David Apter
97. According to Herbert Morrison, bureaucracy is the price of—
(A) Monarchy
(B) Federalism
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Parliamentary democracy
98. The traditional home of ‘patronage bureaucracy’ has been—
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) U.K.
99. Which one of the following is not a feature of Max Weber’s theory of bureaucracy ?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Division of work
(C) Promotion
(D) Commitment to ruler
100. Who among the following formulated the most systematic doctrine of sovereignty ?
(A) Grotius
(B) Bodin
(C) Austin
(D) Locke
Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) Right to equality before law is a civil right.
9. (C) Tibet is not a state because it does not possess the sovereignty, which is the most important attribute of state. Although, it has three other attributes of state-government, population and territory.
10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D)
13. (B) The first sentence of the Communist Manifesto, begins with “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.”
14. (D) The right to hold public office is a political right.
15. (B)
16. (D) The Russian Revolution of 1917 was organised by Lenin and was largely based on the ideas of Karl Marx. The Russian Revolution was the first successful socialist revolution in the world, which led to the establishment of the first socialist state in Russia.
17. (D) 18. (D)
19. (D) Globalisation, as a dominant tendency is a phenomenon of late 20th century. This tendency was not visible during Marx’s times.
20. (C) The Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 2nd Oct., 1959 at Nagaur, Rajasthan. Andhra Pradesh also organised Panchayati Raj in 1959 itself. This new pattern of Panchayati Raj was based on the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957.
21. (C)
22. (D) India has adopted the parliamentary form of government. In India, the President is the head of the state and the Prime Minister is the head of the government.
23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (C) Bicameralism denotes the two chambers of the legislature. In federal system, the central legislature consists of two houses. The Upper House consists of the representatives of the states.
27. (D)
28. (D) According to Lucian Pye, the political development is the result of interaction among three elements—level of equality in general political process, capacity of the political system and level of differentiation in the structures of the system.
29. (B) The concept of ‘development trap’ was given by Fred Riggs, which refers to the imbalance between the elements of equality and capacity in the process of political development.
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (B) The Government of India Act, 1935 did not abolish the Federal Court, but provided for the establishment of a Federal Court under the proposed Federation. However, the Federal part of the Act was never enforced. It should be noted that bicameralism at the central level was introduced by the Act of 1919, however, the Act of 1935 introduced bicameralism at provincial level.
33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (B) The President submits his resignation to the Vice-President and vice-versa.
37. (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly whereas, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of Constituent Assembly in 1946.
38. (C) 39. (C)
40. (D) According to Art 75(1), the Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. According to Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. However, Article 75(3) provides for the collective responsibility of the Ministers, not for their individual responsibility.
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C)
46. (B) V. V. Giri was the first acting President from 3 May, 1969 to 20 July, 1969. Thereafter the Chief Justice of Supreme Court, M. Hidayatullah became the acting President from 20 July, 1969 to 24 August, 1969.
47. (A)
48. (A) The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all from Lok Sabha.
49. (D) According to Article 143, the Advisory Jurisdiction is given to the Supreme Court.
50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A)
56. (D) The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in 1983 and it submitted its report on Centre-State relations in 1988.
57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A)
67. (D) NPT or Non-Proliferation treaty, 1968 is a nuclear disarmamemt treaty. It is not an organisation.
68. (A)
69. (A) The 14th SAARC Summit was held on 3-4 April, 2007 and 15th Summit was held on 2-3 August, 2008 at Colombo.
70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (B)
74. (D) Democratic socialism believes in peaceful methods of change. It opposes revolutionary changes and violence.
75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C) 81. (B)
82. (C) The idea of Laissez faire, the non-intervention of State is economic affairs, was given by Adam Smith. This idea is the core of negative liberalism.
83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A)
88. (A) According to Green, the Liberty is the positive power of doing or enjoying something worth doing and enjoying.
89. (B) However, it should be noted that the interest articulation is also not the function of political parties in specific sense. Almond has Stated that interest articulation is the function of pressure groups.
90. (B) 91. (B)
92. (B) Aristotle did not support the idea of equality among people. In fact, he supported the system of slavery.
93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (C)
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008 Public Administration Solved Paper
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008
Public Administration : Solved Paper
1. Which of the following theories focuses on informal organization and participative management ?
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Scientific Management Theory
(C) Behavioural Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans : (A)
2. “Until administrative description reaches a higher level of sophistication, there is little reason to hope that rapid progress will be made towards the identification and verification of valid administrative principles.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Leonard White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following attempts to construct a theory of public organization in tune with consumer interests and individual preferences ?
(A) Development Administration Approach
(B) Public Choice Approach
(C) Co-optation Concept
(D) Behavioural Approach
Ans : (B)
4. Who theorized that ‘Every person has certain basic assumptions about other people’s attitude toward work and organization.’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Frederick Herzberg
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans : (D)
5. Which of the following has been termed as the biological parent of Public Administration ?
(A) Sociology
(B) Political Science
(C) Business Administration
(D) Psychology
Ans : (B)
6. The central theme of Comparative Public Administration is—
(A) Administrative structure
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Citizen-Administration Relations
(D) Leadership
Ans : (B)
7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Theme)
(a) Job Enrichment
(b) Mechanical Study of the Process
(c) Human Dimensions
(d) Social Equity Attitude
List-II (Thinker)
1. D. Waldo
2. W. F. Willoughby
3. F. Herzberg
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (A)
8. The most preferred perspective to distinguish public and private in administration is—
(A) Agency
(B) Interest
(C) Access
(D) Commitment
Ans : (B)
9. “Lack of courage to delegate properly and of knowledge how to do it is one of the most general causes of failure in organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Lyndall Urwick
(C) Paul H. Appleby
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans : (A)
10. Who was the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group 1963 ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Franc Marini
Ans : (C)
11. Politicisation of bureaucracy means—
(A) Responding to the will of the government of every complexion
(B) Sacrificing professional norms for party consideration
(C) Supporting party ideology
(D) Attending party assemblies
Ans : (B)
12. “In the past the man was first. In the future the system will be the first.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Marshall Dimock
(D) Leonard White
Ans : (B)
13. Rensis Likert’s System I is characterised by—
(A) Supportive Leadership
(B) Low Motivation
(C) Self Regulation
(D) Openness
Ans : (B)
14. The basic premise of New Public Management is—
(A) Governments as the primary agent of all social action
(B) Large governmental bureaucracies
(C) More flexible and open governments
(D) Paternal governments
Ans : (C)
15. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Direct Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Functional Authority
(d) Personal Authority
List-II
1. Seniority
2. Unbroken line between Issuer and Acceptor
3. An Intermediate Agency between Issuer and Acceptor
4. Intrinsic by special knowledge
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (C)
16. According to Mary Parker Follett, the principles of effective coordination are—
(a) Intellectual Ability
(b) Continuity
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Mutual Consultation
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
17. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has attacked—
(a) Notion of Unchanging Principles of Administration
(b) Human Emotions in Organization
(c) Narrowness of Values of Economy and Efficiency
(d) Inconsistencies in Methodology used in determining the principles
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)
18. Human Relations Theory believed that the people are—
(A) Economic Men
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Heterogeneous
(D) Atomistic
Ans : (C)
19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Substantive Coordination
(b) Internal Coordination
(c) Horizontal Coordination
(d) Procedural Coordination
List-II
1. Between Units in the same level
2. Between different units within the organisation
3. Generalised description of the behaviour and relationship of the members of the organization
4. Content of the organization’s activities
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)
20. The linking process for interaction under systems approach does not include—
(A) Communication
(B) Delegation
(C) Balance
(D) Decision Making
Ans : (B)
21. “Work division is the foundation of organization, indeed, the reason for organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Mary Parker Follett
Ans : (C)
22. The semantic barrier to communication is not—
(A) Environment
(B) Distracting Noise
(C) Distance
(D) Poor Listening Habits
Ans : (C)
23. The Bills which can be introduced but cannot be considered without the prior recommendation of the President is—
(A) Money Bills under Article 110
(B) Financial Bills not consisting solely of matters specified in Article 110
(C) Ordinary Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
(D) Bills affecting taxes in which States are interested
Ans : (C)
24. New Public Administration shares this feature with Development Administration—
(A) Effective coordination
(B) Change orientation
(C) Temporal Dimension
(D) Ecological Perspective
Ans : (B)
25. “As long as the study of Public Administration is not comparative, claims for a science of Public Administration is rather hollow.” Who said it ?
(A) Fred Riggs
(B) Max Weber
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Ferrel Heady
Ans : (C)
26. In Britain the ‘Priestly formula’ relates to—
(A) Recruitment
(B) Promotion
(C) Pay
(D) Disciplinary Action
Ans : (B)
27. Whitley Council in UK is not a forum for—
(A) Discussion and Negotiation
(B) Ventilation of Grievances
(C) Settlement of Disputes on Service Conditions
(D) Settlement of Individual cases relating to Promotion & Disciplinary Action
Ans : (D)
28. “Neutral bureaucracy can be found only in a secular political culture.” Who said it ?
(A) M. E. Dimock
(B) Glenn Stahl
(C) G. A. Almond
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)
29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Monte Carlo
(b) Gambler
(c) Synetics
(d) Contract
List-II (Meaning)
1. Generation of Alternative Solutions
2. Narrow Form of Simulation
3. Formal Basis of Authority
4. To take Greater Risk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)
30. The most effective means of citizens’ control over administration is—
(A) Elections
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
31. The U.S. President’s principal staff agency in fiscal, legislative and administrative management is—
(A) Bureau of the Budget
(B) The Office of Management and Budget
(C) Department of the Treasury
(D) White House Office
Ans : (B)
32. Which of the following is not a feature of U.S. personnel system ?
(A) Competitive Service
(B) Lateral Entry
(C) Post-entry Training
(D) Rule of Three
Ans : (B)
33. Grants from Centre to the States are regulated by the following Articles of the Constitution—
(A) 268, 269, 270, 272
(B) 270, 271, 274
(C) 273, 275, 282
(D) 275, 282, 287
Ans : (A)
34. The expectancy theory of motivation depends upon the employee’s perception of the relationship between—
(A) Need, Performance and Achievement
(B) Effort, Performance and Reward
(C) Desire, Performance and Response
(D) Preference, Performance and Action
Ans : (B)
35. Who referred the interaction between politicians and administrators as ‘administrative politics’ ?
(A) Michael Murray
(B) Michael Crozier
(C) David Rosenblom
(D) Peter Self
Ans : (D)
36. The techniques applied in performance appraisal in U.S.A. are—
(a) Rating Scale
(b) Critical Incidents
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced Distribution
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
37. The political rights granted to the Civil Servants in France are—
(a) Right to become member of a political party
(b) Right to participate in political activities
(c) Right to criticise government’s policies
(d) Right to contest elections to any representative office
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
38. The functions performed by the then Secretary to the Governor-General before Independence are now performed by—
(A) Chief Secretary
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (C)
39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Economic Man
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Link Pin Concept
(d) Simulation
List-II
1. Trial and Error Approach to Complex Problems
2. Subordinate becomes a Member of the Superior’s Decision Unit
3. Optimum Decision
4. Graphic Method to see Alternative Solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)
40. In USA the authority to regulate the formation and dissolution of Federal Departments is vested in—
(A) President
(B) Congress
(C) Constitution
(D) President in consultation with the Secretary of State
Ans : (B)
41. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Zone of Acceptance
(b) Zone of Indifference
(c) Span of Attention
(d) Scalar chain
List-II
1. Graicunas
2. Henri Fayol
3. Herbert Simon
4. Chester Barnard
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following, according to Bruce Stone, is not a ‘Bottom-Up’ concept of accountability ?
(A) Parliamentary control
(B) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial Review
(C) Constituency Relationship
(D) Market
Ans : (B)
43. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Civil Service Commission
(b) Recruitment by Promotion
(c) Open Competition
(d) Centralised Recruitment
List-II
1. 1917
2. 1926
3. 1919
4. 1833
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)
44. The concept of Citizens’ Charter as a means to greater accountability and openness was first introduced in 1991 in—
(A) USA
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (B)
45. Which of the following is not an informal training type ?
(A) Training by Communication
(B) Conference Method
(C) Departmental Training
(D) Syndicate Method
Ans : (D)
46. A grant for meeting an unexpected demand is called—
(A) Supplementary Grant
(B) Votes on Account
(C) Votes on Credit
(D) Exceptional Grant
Ans : (D)
47. “Budget is a document which is unstitched and reassembled by the Appropriation Committees of both the Houses.” This statement of Aaron Wildrasky applies to the budget of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
48. The best check on bureaucratic power, according to Weber, lies with—
(A) Powerful Private Groups
(B) Strong Bureaucratic leadership
(C) Strong Parliament
(D) Superior Technical Knowledge of the Chief Executive
Ans : (D)
49. ‘If a society is not at all differentiated, if there are no specialists, if everyone can do everything.’ Riggs calls it a—
(A) Society
(B) Prismatic Society
(C) Diffracted Society
(D) Transitional Society
Ans : (B)
50. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Compromiser—poor decision maker
(B) Executive—good motivator
(C) Bureaucrat—control of situation by rules
(D) Developer—interest in harmony, avoids conflicts
Ans : (B)
51. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Books)
(a) The New Science of Management decision
(b) Organization and Innovation
(c) The Achieving Society
(d) Eupsychian Management
List-II (Author)
1. David McClelland
2. Abraham Maslow
3. Chris Argyris
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)
52. ‘The bureaucracy is a circle, which no one can escape, its hierarchy is a hierarchy of knowledge.’ Who said it ?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Blau and Scott
(D) T. Parsons
Ans : (B)
53. Which of the following is an area of Planning Commission ?
(A) Review of the Union and State Finances
(B) Maintaining Macro-economic Stability
(C) Public and Foreign Loans
(D) Suggesting Ways and Means to Restructure Public Finance
Ans : (A)
54. The advantages of a departmental undertaking are—
(a) Optimum Utilisation of Financial Resources
(b) Operational Flexibility
(c) High Degree of Accountability
(d) Autonomy in working
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Endo-prismatic
(b) Exo-prismatic
(c) Ortho prismatic
(d) Diffracted
List-II
1. Semi differentiated and malintegrated
2. Congruence of aspiration and reality
3. Impetus from outside
4. Internally generated movement towards diffraction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)
56. The authority which can make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of India is—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (A)
57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Knowledge Worker
(b) Domination by Organization personality
(c) Action-centred Leadership Theory
(d) Organization as Bureaucracy
List-II (Thinkers)
1. John Adair
2. Max Weber
3. Chester Barnard
4. Peter Drucker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)
58. ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.’ This has been provided in—
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans : (D)
59. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) All India Services
(b) Classification of Civil Services
(c) Regulation of Recruitment and Conditions of Service
(d) General Policies Regarding all Central Services
List-II
1. Parliamentary Act
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Article 312
4. Civil Service Rules 1930
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (B)
60. “Increasing efficiency must begin with those higher ups. This is the essence of scientific management.” Who said it ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Louis Brandis
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Harrington Emerson
Ans : (D)
61. The conditions necessary to ensure that neutrality does not lead to a state of inertia and status-quo maintenance are—
(a) cultural or class congruence between Ruling group and Administrative elite
(b) absence of fundamental disagreement over social core values
(c) active participation in political process
(d) a shared belief system’s presence
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans : (D)
62. Rigg’s concept of development considers penetration as a factor of integration. Consider the following—
(a) The ability of the government to make and carry out decisions.
(b) People’s receptivity to law
(c) People’s will to participate
(d) People’s ability to participate
Which of the above is correct regarding penetration ?
Codes :
(A) (a)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
63. Who recommended that the National Development Council should be given a constitutional status under Article 263 and renamed as National Economic and Development Council ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) P. J. Rajamannar Committee
(D) Chief Secretary’s Conference
Ans : (B)
64. What falls within the purview of consultation of Union Public Service Commission ?
(a) Direct Appointment
(b) Promotion and Transfer
(c) Pay and Service Conditions
(d) Classification and Training
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
65. In a State the Chief Secretary acts as—
(a) Principal Adviser to the Governor
(b) Coordinating link in inter-State Disputes
(c) Secretary to the Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of all Planning and Development Coordination Committees
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
66. Which of the following provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more States ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) 7th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 11th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
67. Audit of State Government Accounts is a—
(A) State Subject
(B) Union Subject
(C) Subject on Concurrent List
(D) Subject of Fiscal Policy
Ans : (B)
68. The body that examines the expenditure of the Departments and questions the propriety of these expenditures is—
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Committee on Assurances
Ans : (C)
69. Reappropriation is permissible only—
(A) Between voted and charged items of expenditure
(B) Between different grants voted by the Lok Sabha
(C) Within the same grant only
(D) To meet any expenditure not already sanctioned by the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)
70. It is a comprehensive account of the receipts and expenditure of the Government under various heads and sub-heads of the Budget—
(A) The Appropriation Account
(B) The Finance Account
(C) Economic Classification of the Budget
(D) Functional Classification of the Budget
Ans : (B)
71. Which of the following statements are true about Lokayukta in Rajasthan ?
(a) He is appointed by the Governor and is responsible to the legislature.
(b) His jurisdiction spans over Ministers, Members of State Legislature and higher Civil Servants.
(c) He considers the cases of corruption and mal administration.
(d) His job is confined to investigate allegations and not grievances.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)
72. Among the critical dimensions of the leadership situation the most important dimension, according to Fiedler, is—
(A) Position Power
(B) Task Structure
(C) Leader-Member Relations
(D) Least Preferred Co-worker
Ans : (D)
73. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Citizen’s Charter
(b) Right to Information
(c) Judicial Control
(d) Legislative Control
List-II
1. Total Quality Approach
2. Accountability for Decision
3. Transparency
4. Guarantee against Arbitrariness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)
74. Which one of the following is not a function of the Directorate ?
(A) Formulation of the Budget of the Department
(B) Inspection of the execution of work by Field Officers
(C) Rendering technical advice to the Minister/Secretary
(D) Coordination of interdepartmental functions
Ans : (A)
75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Injunction—Strong arm of equity
(B) Quo Warranto—Prevents illegal assumption of Public Office
(C) Prohibition—Issued against administrative authorities
(D) Habeas Corpus—The bulwark of individual liberty.
Ans : (C)
76. The recommendation to the Union Government for the grant of financial assistance to the States is made by—
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) The Finance Commission
(d) The Planning Commission
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
77. “It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy.” This statement has a reference to—
(A) Parliamentary System of the Government
(B) Article 40 of the Constitution
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following is not a corporation form ?
(A) Unit Trust of India
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Food Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)
79. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Development Council ?
(a) It symbolises a federal approach to planning.
(b) It was set up by a proposal of the Cabinet Secretariat in August 1952.
(c) It was reconstituted in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.
(d) The initiative to convene its meeting lies with the Planning Commission.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
80. For which form of Public Enterprise it is said that “It is a child of the State which grows into maturity as soon as it is born” ?
(A) Departmental Form
(B) Company Form
(C) Corporation Form
(D) Commission Form
Ans : (C)
81. Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment include—
(A) Three Tier Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for Women up to 1/3 seats
(D) Five Year term for PRIs
Ans : (B)
82. Which of the following is the Central Personnel Agency in India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Department of Personnel and Training
(D) Staff Selection Board
Ans : (C)
83. An urban body in the modern sense was first established in the year—
(A) 1660
(B) 1687
(C) 1951
(D) 1992
Ans : (B)
84. It is not created by an act of State or Union Legislature—
(A) Municipal Corporation
(B) Notified Area Committee
(C) Town Area Committee
(D) Cantonment Board
Ans : (B)
85. The Central Council of Local Government—
(a) is an advisory body.
(b) is constituted under Article 263
(c) Consists of Union Minister for Urban Development and State Ministers for Local Self Government
(d) Controls the Central financial assistance to local bodies
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
86. The Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats in India are mentioned in the Article—
(A) 243 B
(B) 243 D
(C) 243 G
(D) 243 W
Ans : (C)
87. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Miniature District
(b) King-pin of Revenue Administration
(c) Unit for Revenue and Criminal Administration
(d) First Line Supervisor in the chain of Revenue Administration
List-II
1. Sub Division
2. Kanungo
3. Tehsil
4. Patwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)
88. Gram Sabha has been called “Embodiment of Direct Democracy” by—
(A) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) L. M. Singhvi Committee
Ans : (D)
89. The transitional area, smaller urban area, larger urban area are differentiated on the basis of—
(a) population and its density
(b) level of per capita income
(c) revenue generated for local administration
(d) percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
90. With the advent of development administration, the Collector has emerged as—
(A) Symbol of State Power
(B) Head of General Administration
(C) Coordinator of Development Programmes
(D) Executive Head of Development Programmes
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 91–100) The following consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
91. Assertion (A) : The study of Public Administration lacks cross cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognised as science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend the national frontiers and national experiences.
Ans : (C)
92. Assertion (A) : The Contingency approach and the Transactional approach, both are mutually complementary and quite interrelated.
Reason (R) : Unlike the Contingency models, which concentrate only on the problems confronting the leader in dealing with a small group, Transactional approaches also analyse the leader’s subordinates and the problems confronting them.
Ans : (B)
93. Assertion (A) : Like any social science, Public Administration has its own corpus of methodologies.
Reason (R) : Public Administrationists are aware that the central methodologies of the ‘mother discipline’ usually are irrelevant of practising Public Administration.
Ans : (A)
94. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations Theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relations.
Reason (R) : Richard Franke and James Kaul concluded that the human relations were not the reason behind worker’s efficiency.
Ans : (C)
95. Assertion (A) : The Government has no power to regulate, through an appropriate legislation, the recruitment to civil services.
Reason (R) : The Constitution provides for the establishment of an impartial and independent Union Public Service Commission for recruiting civil servants in India.
Ans : (D)
96. Assertion (A) : In the open model, what is good for the individual is also good for the society.
Reason (R) : Open model of organization, like the closed model, is an ideal type.
Ans : (B)
97. Assertion (A) : Individuals and organizations over invest in information.
Reason (R) : Information intensive decisions have a greater organizational acceptance and smoother implementation.
Ans : (A)
98. Assertion (A) : The first principle of democratic governance is that the rulers should be accountable to the people.
Reason (R) : Transparency and accountability in governance depend on citizens easy access to reliable information and data.
Ans : (B)
99. Assertion (A) : The ‘disadvantaged’ states perceive that they have been punished for the better performance, whereas the ‘laggard’ states continue to be rewarded.
Reason (R) : The Finance Commission has the constitutional responsibility to provide succour to the underdeveloped States.
Ans : (B)
100. Assertion (A) : The bureaucracy and the political leadership can achieve the goals by working closely and harmoniously.
Reason (R) : If political leadership represents the input functions of a political system, the output function is performed by the administration.
Ans : (A)
Public Administration : Solved Paper
1. Which of the following theories focuses on informal organization and participative management ?
(A) Human Relations Theory
(B) Scientific Management Theory
(C) Behavioural Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Ans : (A)
2. “Until administrative description reaches a higher level of sophistication, there is little reason to hope that rapid progress will be made towards the identification and verification of valid administrative principles.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Leonard White
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Robert Dahl
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following attempts to construct a theory of public organization in tune with consumer interests and individual preferences ?
(A) Development Administration Approach
(B) Public Choice Approach
(C) Co-optation Concept
(D) Behavioural Approach
Ans : (B)
4. Who theorized that ‘Every person has certain basic assumptions about other people’s attitude toward work and organization.’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Frederick Herzberg
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Douglas McGregor
Ans : (D)
5. Which of the following has been termed as the biological parent of Public Administration ?
(A) Sociology
(B) Political Science
(C) Business Administration
(D) Psychology
Ans : (B)
6. The central theme of Comparative Public Administration is—
(A) Administrative structure
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Citizen-Administration Relations
(D) Leadership
Ans : (B)
7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Theme)
(a) Job Enrichment
(b) Mechanical Study of the Process
(c) Human Dimensions
(d) Social Equity Attitude
List-II (Thinker)
1. D. Waldo
2. W. F. Willoughby
3. F. Herzberg
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (A)
8. The most preferred perspective to distinguish public and private in administration is—
(A) Agency
(B) Interest
(C) Access
(D) Commitment
Ans : (B)
9. “Lack of courage to delegate properly and of knowledge how to do it is one of the most general causes of failure in organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Lyndall Urwick
(C) Paul H. Appleby
(D) Dwight Waldo
Ans : (A)
10. Who was the Chairman of the Comparative Administration Group 1963 ?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Robert Dahl
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Franc Marini
Ans : (C)
11. Politicisation of bureaucracy means—
(A) Responding to the will of the government of every complexion
(B) Sacrificing professional norms for party consideration
(C) Supporting party ideology
(D) Attending party assemblies
Ans : (B)
12. “In the past the man was first. In the future the system will be the first.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Marshall Dimock
(D) Leonard White
Ans : (B)
13. Rensis Likert’s System I is characterised by—
(A) Supportive Leadership
(B) Low Motivation
(C) Self Regulation
(D) Openness
Ans : (B)
14. The basic premise of New Public Management is—
(A) Governments as the primary agent of all social action
(B) Large governmental bureaucracies
(C) More flexible and open governments
(D) Paternal governments
Ans : (C)
15. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Direct Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Functional Authority
(d) Personal Authority
List-II
1. Seniority
2. Unbroken line between Issuer and Acceptor
3. An Intermediate Agency between Issuer and Acceptor
4. Intrinsic by special knowledge
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (C)
16. According to Mary Parker Follett, the principles of effective coordination are—
(a) Intellectual Ability
(b) Continuity
(c) Reciprocity
(d) Mutual Consultation
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
17. Dwight Waldo in his book ‘The Administrative State’ has attacked—
(a) Notion of Unchanging Principles of Administration
(b) Human Emotions in Organization
(c) Narrowness of Values of Economy and Efficiency
(d) Inconsistencies in Methodology used in determining the principles
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)
18. Human Relations Theory believed that the people are—
(A) Economic Men
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Heterogeneous
(D) Atomistic
Ans : (C)
19. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Substantive Coordination
(b) Internal Coordination
(c) Horizontal Coordination
(d) Procedural Coordination
List-II
1. Between Units in the same level
2. Between different units within the organisation
3. Generalised description of the behaviour and relationship of the members of the organization
4. Content of the organization’s activities
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)
20. The linking process for interaction under systems approach does not include—
(A) Communication
(B) Delegation
(C) Balance
(D) Decision Making
Ans : (B)
21. “Work division is the foundation of organization, indeed, the reason for organization.” Who said it ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) Mary Parker Follett
Ans : (C)
22. The semantic barrier to communication is not—
(A) Environment
(B) Distracting Noise
(C) Distance
(D) Poor Listening Habits
Ans : (C)
23. The Bills which can be introduced but cannot be considered without the prior recommendation of the President is—
(A) Money Bills under Article 110
(B) Financial Bills not consisting solely of matters specified in Article 110
(C) Ordinary Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
(D) Bills affecting taxes in which States are interested
Ans : (C)
24. New Public Administration shares this feature with Development Administration—
(A) Effective coordination
(B) Change orientation
(C) Temporal Dimension
(D) Ecological Perspective
Ans : (B)
25. “As long as the study of Public Administration is not comparative, claims for a science of Public Administration is rather hollow.” Who said it ?
(A) Fred Riggs
(B) Max Weber
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Ferrel Heady
Ans : (C)
26. In Britain the ‘Priestly formula’ relates to—
(A) Recruitment
(B) Promotion
(C) Pay
(D) Disciplinary Action
Ans : (B)
27. Whitley Council in UK is not a forum for—
(A) Discussion and Negotiation
(B) Ventilation of Grievances
(C) Settlement of Disputes on Service Conditions
(D) Settlement of Individual cases relating to Promotion & Disciplinary Action
Ans : (D)
28. “Neutral bureaucracy can be found only in a secular political culture.” Who said it ?
(A) M. E. Dimock
(B) Glenn Stahl
(C) G. A. Almond
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)
29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Monte Carlo
(b) Gambler
(c) Synetics
(d) Contract
List-II (Meaning)
1. Generation of Alternative Solutions
2. Narrow Form of Simulation
3. Formal Basis of Authority
4. To take Greater Risk
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)
30. The most effective means of citizens’ control over administration is—
(A) Elections
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)
31. The U.S. President’s principal staff agency in fiscal, legislative and administrative management is—
(A) Bureau of the Budget
(B) The Office of Management and Budget
(C) Department of the Treasury
(D) White House Office
Ans : (B)
32. Which of the following is not a feature of U.S. personnel system ?
(A) Competitive Service
(B) Lateral Entry
(C) Post-entry Training
(D) Rule of Three
Ans : (B)
33. Grants from Centre to the States are regulated by the following Articles of the Constitution—
(A) 268, 269, 270, 272
(B) 270, 271, 274
(C) 273, 275, 282
(D) 275, 282, 287
Ans : (A)
34. The expectancy theory of motivation depends upon the employee’s perception of the relationship between—
(A) Need, Performance and Achievement
(B) Effort, Performance and Reward
(C) Desire, Performance and Response
(D) Preference, Performance and Action
Ans : (B)
35. Who referred the interaction between politicians and administrators as ‘administrative politics’ ?
(A) Michael Murray
(B) Michael Crozier
(C) David Rosenblom
(D) Peter Self
Ans : (D)
36. The techniques applied in performance appraisal in U.S.A. are—
(a) Rating Scale
(b) Critical Incidents
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced Distribution
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
37. The political rights granted to the Civil Servants in France are—
(a) Right to become member of a political party
(b) Right to participate in political activities
(c) Right to criticise government’s policies
(d) Right to contest elections to any representative office
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
38. The functions performed by the then Secretary to the Governor-General before Independence are now performed by—
(A) Chief Secretary
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (C)
39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Economic Man
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Link Pin Concept
(d) Simulation
List-II
1. Trial and Error Approach to Complex Problems
2. Subordinate becomes a Member of the Superior’s Decision Unit
3. Optimum Decision
4. Graphic Method to see Alternative Solutions
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)
40. In USA the authority to regulate the formation and dissolution of Federal Departments is vested in—
(A) President
(B) Congress
(C) Constitution
(D) President in consultation with the Secretary of State
Ans : (B)
41. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Zone of Acceptance
(b) Zone of Indifference
(c) Span of Attention
(d) Scalar chain
List-II
1. Graicunas
2. Henri Fayol
3. Herbert Simon
4. Chester Barnard
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (B)
42. Which of the following, according to Bruce Stone, is not a ‘Bottom-Up’ concept of accountability ?
(A) Parliamentary control
(B) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial Review
(C) Constituency Relationship
(D) Market
Ans : (B)
43. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Civil Service Commission
(b) Recruitment by Promotion
(c) Open Competition
(d) Centralised Recruitment
List-II
1. 1917
2. 1926
3. 1919
4. 1833
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)
44. The concept of Citizens’ Charter as a means to greater accountability and openness was first introduced in 1991 in—
(A) USA
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (B)
45. Which of the following is not an informal training type ?
(A) Training by Communication
(B) Conference Method
(C) Departmental Training
(D) Syndicate Method
Ans : (D)
46. A grant for meeting an unexpected demand is called—
(A) Supplementary Grant
(B) Votes on Account
(C) Votes on Credit
(D) Exceptional Grant
Ans : (D)
47. “Budget is a document which is unstitched and reassembled by the Appropriation Committees of both the Houses.” This statement of Aaron Wildrasky applies to the budget of—
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
48. The best check on bureaucratic power, according to Weber, lies with—
(A) Powerful Private Groups
(B) Strong Bureaucratic leadership
(C) Strong Parliament
(D) Superior Technical Knowledge of the Chief Executive
Ans : (D)
49. ‘If a society is not at all differentiated, if there are no specialists, if everyone can do everything.’ Riggs calls it a—
(A) Society
(B) Prismatic Society
(C) Diffracted Society
(D) Transitional Society
Ans : (B)
50. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Compromiser—poor decision maker
(B) Executive—good motivator
(C) Bureaucrat—control of situation by rules
(D) Developer—interest in harmony, avoids conflicts
Ans : (B)
51. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Books)
(a) The New Science of Management decision
(b) Organization and Innovation
(c) The Achieving Society
(d) Eupsychian Management
List-II (Author)
1. David McClelland
2. Abraham Maslow
3. Chris Argyris
4. Herbert Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)
52. ‘The bureaucracy is a circle, which no one can escape, its hierarchy is a hierarchy of knowledge.’ Who said it ?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Blau and Scott
(D) T. Parsons
Ans : (B)
53. Which of the following is an area of Planning Commission ?
(A) Review of the Union and State Finances
(B) Maintaining Macro-economic Stability
(C) Public and Foreign Loans
(D) Suggesting Ways and Means to Restructure Public Finance
Ans : (A)
54. The advantages of a departmental undertaking are—
(a) Optimum Utilisation of Financial Resources
(b) Operational Flexibility
(c) High Degree of Accountability
(d) Autonomy in working
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Endo-prismatic
(b) Exo-prismatic
(c) Ortho prismatic
(d) Diffracted
List-II
1. Semi differentiated and malintegrated
2. Congruence of aspiration and reality
3. Impetus from outside
4. Internally generated movement towards diffraction
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)
56. The authority which can make rules for the transaction of the business of the Government of India is—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans : (A)
57. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I (Concept)
(a) Knowledge Worker
(b) Domination by Organization personality
(c) Action-centred Leadership Theory
(d) Organization as Bureaucracy
List-II (Thinkers)
1. John Adair
2. Max Weber
3. Chester Barnard
4. Peter Drucker
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)
58. ‘No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.’ This has been provided in—
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 112
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans : (D)
59. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) All India Services
(b) Classification of Civil Services
(c) Regulation of Recruitment and Conditions of Service
(d) General Policies Regarding all Central Services
List-II
1. Parliamentary Act
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Article 312
4. Civil Service Rules 1930
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (B)
60. “Increasing efficiency must begin with those higher ups. This is the essence of scientific management.” Who said it ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Louis Brandis
(C) Frederick Taylor
(D) Harrington Emerson
Ans : (D)
61. The conditions necessary to ensure that neutrality does not lead to a state of inertia and status-quo maintenance are—
(a) cultural or class congruence between Ruling group and Administrative elite
(b) absence of fundamental disagreement over social core values
(c) active participation in political process
(d) a shared belief system’s presence
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Ans : (D)
62. Rigg’s concept of development considers penetration as a factor of integration. Consider the following—
(a) The ability of the government to make and carry out decisions.
(b) People’s receptivity to law
(c) People’s will to participate
(d) People’s ability to participate
Which of the above is correct regarding penetration ?
Codes :
(A) (a)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
63. Who recommended that the National Development Council should be given a constitutional status under Article 263 and renamed as National Economic and Development Council ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) P. J. Rajamannar Committee
(D) Chief Secretary’s Conference
Ans : (B)
64. What falls within the purview of consultation of Union Public Service Commission ?
(a) Direct Appointment
(b) Promotion and Transfer
(c) Pay and Service Conditions
(d) Classification and Training
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (A)
65. In a State the Chief Secretary acts as—
(a) Principal Adviser to the Governor
(b) Coordinating link in inter-State Disputes
(c) Secretary to the Chief Minister
(d) Chairman of all Planning and Development Coordination Committees
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (B)
66. Which of the following provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more States ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) 7th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 11th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
67. Audit of State Government Accounts is a—
(A) State Subject
(B) Union Subject
(C) Subject on Concurrent List
(D) Subject of Fiscal Policy
Ans : (B)
68. The body that examines the expenditure of the Departments and questions the propriety of these expenditures is—
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Committee on Assurances
Ans : (C)
69. Reappropriation is permissible only—
(A) Between voted and charged items of expenditure
(B) Between different grants voted by the Lok Sabha
(C) Within the same grant only
(D) To meet any expenditure not already sanctioned by the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)
70. It is a comprehensive account of the receipts and expenditure of the Government under various heads and sub-heads of the Budget—
(A) The Appropriation Account
(B) The Finance Account
(C) Economic Classification of the Budget
(D) Functional Classification of the Budget
Ans : (B)
71. Which of the following statements are true about Lokayukta in Rajasthan ?
(a) He is appointed by the Governor and is responsible to the legislature.
(b) His jurisdiction spans over Ministers, Members of State Legislature and higher Civil Servants.
(c) He considers the cases of corruption and mal administration.
(d) His job is confined to investigate allegations and not grievances.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (c)
Ans : (D)
72. Among the critical dimensions of the leadership situation the most important dimension, according to Fiedler, is—
(A) Position Power
(B) Task Structure
(C) Leader-Member Relations
(D) Least Preferred Co-worker
Ans : (D)
73. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Citizen’s Charter
(b) Right to Information
(c) Judicial Control
(d) Legislative Control
List-II
1. Total Quality Approach
2. Accountability for Decision
3. Transparency
4. Guarantee against Arbitrariness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)
74. Which one of the following is not a function of the Directorate ?
(A) Formulation of the Budget of the Department
(B) Inspection of the execution of work by Field Officers
(C) Rendering technical advice to the Minister/Secretary
(D) Coordination of interdepartmental functions
Ans : (A)
75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Injunction—Strong arm of equity
(B) Quo Warranto—Prevents illegal assumption of Public Office
(C) Prohibition—Issued against administrative authorities
(D) Habeas Corpus—The bulwark of individual liberty.
Ans : (C)
76. The recommendation to the Union Government for the grant of financial assistance to the States is made by—
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) The Finance Commission
(d) The Planning Commission
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
77. “It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy.” This statement has a reference to—
(A) Parliamentary System of the Government
(B) Article 40 of the Constitution
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 74th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following is not a corporation form ?
(A) Unit Trust of India
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Food Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)
79. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Development Council ?
(a) It symbolises a federal approach to planning.
(b) It was set up by a proposal of the Cabinet Secretariat in August 1952.
(c) It was reconstituted in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.
(d) The initiative to convene its meeting lies with the Planning Commission.
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
80. For which form of Public Enterprise it is said that “It is a child of the State which grows into maturity as soon as it is born” ?
(A) Departmental Form
(B) Company Form
(C) Corporation Form
(D) Commission Form
Ans : (C)
81. Voluntary provisions of 73rd Constitutional Amendment include—
(A) Three Tier Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Reservation for Backward Classes
(C) Reservation for Women up to 1/3 seats
(D) Five Year term for PRIs
Ans : (B)
82. Which of the following is the Central Personnel Agency in India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Department of Personnel and Training
(D) Staff Selection Board
Ans : (C)
83. An urban body in the modern sense was first established in the year—
(A) 1660
(B) 1687
(C) 1951
(D) 1992
Ans : (B)
84. It is not created by an act of State or Union Legislature—
(A) Municipal Corporation
(B) Notified Area Committee
(C) Town Area Committee
(D) Cantonment Board
Ans : (B)
85. The Central Council of Local Government—
(a) is an advisory body.
(b) is constituted under Article 263
(c) Consists of Union Minister for Urban Development and State Ministers for Local Self Government
(d) Controls the Central financial assistance to local bodies
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans : (C)
86. The Powers, Authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats in India are mentioned in the Article—
(A) 243 B
(B) 243 D
(C) 243 G
(D) 243 W
Ans : (C)
87. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer :
List-I
(a) Miniature District
(b) King-pin of Revenue Administration
(c) Unit for Revenue and Criminal Administration
(d) First Line Supervisor in the chain of Revenue Administration
List-II
1. Sub Division
2. Kanungo
3. Tehsil
4. Patwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)
88. Gram Sabha has been called “Embodiment of Direct Democracy” by—
(A) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G. V. K. Rao Committee
(D) L. M. Singhvi Committee
Ans : (D)
89. The transitional area, smaller urban area, larger urban area are differentiated on the basis of—
(a) population and its density
(b) level of per capita income
(c) revenue generated for local administration
(d) percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities
Codes :
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d)
Ans : (D)
90. With the advent of development administration, the Collector has emerged as—
(A) Symbol of State Power
(B) Head of General Administration
(C) Coordinator of Development Programmes
(D) Executive Head of Development Programmes
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 91–100) The following consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
91. Assertion (A) : The study of Public Administration lacks cross cultural concepts and principles for being able to be recognised as science.
Reason (R) : Administrative culture cannot transcend the national frontiers and national experiences.
Ans : (C)
92. Assertion (A) : The Contingency approach and the Transactional approach, both are mutually complementary and quite interrelated.
Reason (R) : Unlike the Contingency models, which concentrate only on the problems confronting the leader in dealing with a small group, Transactional approaches also analyse the leader’s subordinates and the problems confronting them.
Ans : (B)
93. Assertion (A) : Like any social science, Public Administration has its own corpus of methodologies.
Reason (R) : Public Administrationists are aware that the central methodologies of the ‘mother discipline’ usually are irrelevant of practising Public Administration.
Ans : (A)
94. Assertion (A) : The Human Relations Theory focuses on management as a web of interpersonal relations.
Reason (R) : Richard Franke and James Kaul concluded that the human relations were not the reason behind worker’s efficiency.
Ans : (C)
95. Assertion (A) : The Government has no power to regulate, through an appropriate legislation, the recruitment to civil services.
Reason (R) : The Constitution provides for the establishment of an impartial and independent Union Public Service Commission for recruiting civil servants in India.
Ans : (D)
96. Assertion (A) : In the open model, what is good for the individual is also good for the society.
Reason (R) : Open model of organization, like the closed model, is an ideal type.
Ans : (B)
97. Assertion (A) : Individuals and organizations over invest in information.
Reason (R) : Information intensive decisions have a greater organizational acceptance and smoother implementation.
Ans : (A)
98. Assertion (A) : The first principle of democratic governance is that the rulers should be accountable to the people.
Reason (R) : Transparency and accountability in governance depend on citizens easy access to reliable information and data.
Ans : (B)
99. Assertion (A) : The ‘disadvantaged’ states perceive that they have been punished for the better performance, whereas the ‘laggard’ states continue to be rewarded.
Reason (R) : The Finance Commission has the constitutional responsibility to provide succour to the underdeveloped States.
Ans : (B)
100. Assertion (A) : The bureaucracy and the political leadership can achieve the goals by working closely and harmoniously.
Reason (R) : If political leadership represents the input functions of a political system, the output function is performed by the administration.
Ans : (A)
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008 Commerce Paper
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008
Commerce : Solved Paper
1. The minimum paid-up share capital for a public company shall be—
(A) Rs. 1 lakh
(B) Rs. 2 lakhs
(C) Rs. 3 lakhs
(D) Rs. 5 lakhs
Ans : (D)
2. Internal activity of a company is going to be performed according to established regulations. This assumption is provided as a right by—
(A) Doctrine of Indoor Management
(B) Doctrine of Constructive Notice
(C) Doctrine of Ultravires
(D) Doctrine of Intravires
Ans : (A)
3. A public company can start its business operations after getting—
(A) Certificate of Incorporation
(B) Minimum Subscription
(C) Certificate of Commencement of Business
(D) Permission of the Controller of Capital Issue
Ans : (C)
4. Under Section 275 of the Companies’ Act, 1956 a person can become director in public company of not more than—
(A) 5 companies
(B) 10 companies
(C) 15 companies
(D) 20 companies
Ans : (C)
5. Articles of Association can be altered by passing—
(A) An ordinary resolution in Annual General Meeting
(B) A special resolution in Annual General Meeting
(C) A resolution with special notice
(D) Without any resolution
Ans : (B)
6. In case of Board Meetings the Quorum must be present—
(A) At the commencement of the meeting
(B) At the termination of the meeting
(C) Throughout the meeting
(D) At the commencement and termination both
Ans : (A)
7. In a public company the minimum number for having a Quorum in a meeting is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Ans : (C)
8. The capital issues of public limited companies are subject to guidelines issued by—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Central Government
(C) Central Bank of India
(D) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Ans : (D)
9. Disinvestment of shares means—
(A) To sale the shares of private company to public
(B) To sale the shares of public company to the public
(C) To sale the shares of Government company to the public
(D) To sale of shares by holding company to its subsidiary company
Ans : (B)
10. When the existing companies raise additional funds by issue of shares to the existing shareholders in proportion to their existing shareholdings, it is called—
(A) Buyback of shares
(B) Issue of shares at premium
(C) Issue of shares at discount
(D) Right shares issue
Ans : (D)
11. Bombay Stock Exchange Sensex consists of ……… script as on 31st March, 2005.
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
Ans : (C)
12. The basic aim of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is to—
(A) Develop an effective and efficient monitoring and control system for the Indian Capital Market
(B) To help Bombay Stock Exchange only
(C) To help National Stock Exchange of India Ltd. only
(D) To help OTC Exchange of India only
Ans : (A)
13. Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Chester Bernard
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans : (D)
14. Principle of ‘Unity of Command’ means—
(A) Unity of directions
(B) To receive orders from one officer only
(C) A fixed place for every person
(D) Proper delegation to subordinates
Ans : (B)
15. Managerial Planning is a—
(A) Middle Level Function
(B) Lower Level Function
(C) Top Level Function
(D) All Level Function
Ans : (D)
16. “Organisation is the foundation of management.” This statement is given by—
(A) Henry Ford
(B) Haney
(C) Keeling
(D) Lansberry Fish
Ans : (A)
17. The number of subordinates a superior can effectively handle is called—
(A) Cooperation
(B) Coordination
(C) Supervision
(D) Span of control
Ans : (D)
18. In Need Hierarchy Theory of Abraham H. Maslow, Self Actualisation needs are at level—
(A) Lower level needs
(B) Middle level needs
(C) Higher level needs
(D) Highest level needs
Ans : (A)
19. Motivation - Hygiene Theory was propounded by—
(A) Abraham H. Maslow
(B) Fredrick Herzberg
(C) Peter F. Druker
(D) Argyris Chris
Ans : (B)
20. ‘Carrot and Stick’ principle is given in Theory—
(A) McGregor Theory X
(B) McGregor Theory Y
(C) William Ouchi Theory Z
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
21. “Organisation is a Management Process by which people, functions and physical factors are brought together to form a controllable unit.” This definition is given by—
(A) Haney
(B) Kelling B. Lewis
(C) Oliver Sheldon
(D) Cornell
Ans : (C)
22. Out of the following forms, which form of organisation is the oldest one ?
(A) Line and staff organisation
(B) Functional organisation
(C) Committee organisation
(D) Line organisation
Ans : (D)
23. “A body of persons elected or appointed to meet on an organised basis for the discussion and dealing of matters brought before it.” It is called—
(A) Functional organisation
(B) Formal organisation
(C) Committee organisation
(D) Informal organisation
Ans : (C)
24. Due to coordination—
(A) There is a unity of order
(B) There is a unity of direction
(C) There is a leadership
(D) Employees are motivated
Ans : (A)
25. In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
(A) To machines
(B) To paper work
(C) To man
(D) To production
Ans : (C)
26. The Essence of Control is—
(A) To take decision
(B) To take corrective action
(C) To make enquiry
(D) To motivate
Ans : (B)
27. An annual general meeting may be called after giving shorter notice instead of 21 clear days, if consent is accorded by—
(A) All the directors of company
(B) All the members entitled to vote there at
(C) Majority of members entitled to vote there all
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
28. “The position of a Company Secretary is like that of a hub in a bicycle wheel.” This statement shows the—
(A) Importance of Company Secretary
(B) Rights of Company Secretary
(C) Duties of Company Secretary
(D) Liabilities of Company Secretary
Ans : (A)
29. The first Secretary of the company is appointed by—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Promoters
(C) Government
(D) Directors
Ans : (B)
30. Appointment of full time Company Secretary is compulsory in all those companies, whose paidup share capital is—
(A) Rs. 50 lakhs or more
(B) Rs. 1 crore or more
(C) Rs. 2 crores or more
(D) Rs. 3 crores of more
Ans : (C)
31. A meeting of the shareholders held only once during the life time of the company is known as—
(A) Meeting of the Directors
(B) Meeting of the Creditors
(C) Extraordinary General Meeting
(D) Statutory Meeting
Ans : (D)
32. For calling the Extraordinary General Meeting a clear notice of ……… days must be given to all the members.
(A) 7
(B) 15
(C) 21
(D) 30
Ans : (C)
33. Appointment of a person who is a Director, as a Secretary in the Company would require approval of the company by—
(A) Special Resolution
(B) Ordinary Resolution
(C) Resolution by circulation
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
34. The first Stock Exchange in India was established in—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Delhi
(C) Bombay
(D) Madras
Ans : (C)
35. Blue Chips Shares mean—
(A) Those shares which are listed in Stock Exchange
(B) Those shares whose guarantee is given by Government
(C) Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly
(D) Those shares which are issued at first time
Ans : (C)
36. FEMA stands for—
(A) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(B) Funds Exchange Management Act
(C) Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
(D) Future Exchange Management Act
Ans : (A)
37. What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
(A) It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
(B) It is global in its membership
(C) It has far wider scope than GATT
(D) Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Ans : (D)
38. Convertibility of the rupee implies—
(A) Being able to convert rupees notes into gold
(B) Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by marketforces
(C) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa
(D) Developing an international market for currencies in India
Ans : (C)
39. ……… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade.
(A) ISRD
(B) ADS
(C) WTO
(D) DIMF
Ans : (C)
40. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
(B) Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
(C) Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
41. The present World Economic Depression first of all, started from which country ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
42. Which, institution is known as the ‘Soft Loan Window’ of World Bank ?
(A) I.F.C. (International Financial Corporation)
(B) I.D.A. (International Development Association)
(C) I.M.F. (International Monetary Fund)
(D) Indian Development Forum
Ans : (B)
43. Which is not a insurable risk ?
(A) Accident Risk
(B) Loss of Crops Risk
(C) The Risk of Trading in New Market
(D) The Risk of Sinking of a Ship
Ans : (C)
44. The Life Insurance in India was nationalised in the year—
(A) 1870
(B) 1956
(C) 1960
(D) 1966
Ans : (B)
45. Fire Insurance is based on the principle of—
(A) Utmost Good faith
(B) Insurable Interest
(C) Indemnity
(D) Cooperation
Ans : (C)
46. In order to reduce the risk of heavy insurance the insurer passes on some business to the other company, it is called—
(A) Reinsurance
(B) Double Insurance
(C) Joint Insurance Policy
(D) Separate Insurance
Ans : (A)
47. Contents of Marine Insurance include—
(A) Insurance of Cargo only
(B) Insurance of Freight only
(C) Insurance of Hull only
(D) Insurance of Cargo, Freight & Hull
Ans : (D)
48. The object of ‘Agenda’ is to inform—
(A) About the profitability and activity
(B) About the progress of company
(C) About the matter in sequence to be discussed in the meeting
(D) About the routine matters
Ans : (C)
49. The Branch of Accounting which is concerned with the processing and presenting data for decision making is known as—
(A) Common Dollar Accounting
(B) Social Accounting
(C) Cost Accounting
(D) Management Accounting
Ans : (D)
50. Final accounts prepared in narrative style are in—
(A) Horizontal form
(B) Accounts form
(C) Vertical form
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
51. According to Balance Sheet equation concept, the capital will be—
(A) Capital = Liabilities – Assets
(B) Capital = Fixed Assets –
Current Assests
(C) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
(D) Capital = Assets + Liabilities
Ans : (C)
52. In common size Balance Sheet analysis we evaluate—
(A) Increase or decrease over two years is analysed
(B) Only increase over two years is analysed
(C) Only decrease over two years is analysed
(D) All assets and liabilities are expressed in terms of percentage of total
Ans : (D)
53. Increase in fixed asset due to purchase is—
(A) Source of fund
(B) Fund from operation
(C) Use of fund
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
54. For the purpose of preparation of fund flow statement, fund means—
(A) Total resources
(B) Cash/bank balances
(C) Current Assets
(D) Working capital
Ans : (D)
55. The following data, relates to manufacturing company for the year 2006-07—
Net Profit as per P & L A/c—Rs. 2,40,000; Depreciation—Rs. 80,000; Goodwill written-off—Rs. 40,000, Profit on Sale of Fixed Assets—Rs. 16,000, Proposed Dividend—Rs. 96,000. The fund from operation would be—
(A) Rs. 4,40,000
(B) Rs. 4,00,000
(C) Rs. 6,40,000
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
56. Total sales is Rs. 7,60,000, cash sales Rs. 30,000 collection period is 25 days, debtors at Balance Sheet date will be—
(A) Rs. 80,000
(B) Rs. 70,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 50,000
Ans : (D)
57. Price earning ratio is 83•33% and E.P.S. is Rs. 30. The market price of equity share will be—
(A) Rs. 33•33
(B) Rs. 66•67
(C) Rs. 20
(D) Rs. 25
Ans : (D)
58. If the current ratio is 2, current assests are worth Rs. 1,600, if current ratio is not allowed to fall below 1•5, how much additional can be borrowed by the company on the short term basis ?
(A) Rs. 400
(B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 2,733
(D) Rs. 800
Ans : (A)
59. Rate of Gross Profit on cost is 25%. Total sales is Rs. 1,00,000 and Average Stock is Rs. 1,60,000. Stock Turnover Ratio will be—
(A) 0•5 times
(B) 0•8 times
(C) 0•10 times
(D) 0•4 times
Ans : (A)
60. Average stock of firm is Rs. 80,000, the opening stock is Rs. 10,000 less than closing stock. Find opening stock.
(A) Rs. 95,000
(B) Rs. 85,000
(C) Rs. 90,000
(D) Rs. 75,000
Ans : (D)
61. Current Ratio is 3•75, Acid Test Ratio is 1•25 Stock Rs. 3,75,000, calculate working capital.
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 4,00,000
(C) Rs. 4,12,500
(D) Rs. 4,25,000
Ans : (C)
62. From the information given below, calculate Debt service coverage Ratio—
Net profit after interest and Tax Rs. 40,000, Depreciation Rs. 5,000, Rate of Income Tax 50%, 10% Mortgage Debentures Rs. 60,000. Fixed Interest Charges Rs. 6,000, Debenture Redemption Fund Appropriation of Outstanding Debentures 10%.
(A) 4•06 times
(B) 5•06 times
(C) 6•06 times
(D) 7•06 times
Ans : (A)
63. Share premium account can be used for—
(A) Paying tax liability
(B) Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
(C) Paying Dividend on shares
(D) Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Ans : (B)
64. Ploughing-back of profits means—
(A) Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
(B) Non-declaration of dividend in any year
(C) Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
(D) Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Ans : (D)
65. As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be—
(A) Added to paid up capital
(B) Deducted from called up capital
(C) Added to capital reserve
(D) Shown as a revenue reserve
Ans : (B)
66. A company invited application for subscription of 5,000 shares. The application were received for 6,000 shares. The shares were allotted on pro-rata basis. If X has applied for 180 shares how many shares would be allotted to him ?
(A) 180 shares
(B) 200 shares
(C) 150 shares
(D) 175 shares
Ans : (C)
67. Consider the following information pertaining to K Ltd. on September 4, 2005, the company issued 12,000 7% debentures having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 2•5%. On September 12, the company issued 25,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend @ 6% p.a. thereon. Bank balance on August 31, 2005 was Rs. 30,00,000. After effecting the above transaction, the Bank Balance as on September 30, 2005 will be—
(A) Rs. 35,15,000
(B) Rs. 33,80,000
(C) Rs. 33,45,000
(D) Rs. 35,05,000
Ans : (A)
68. The balance appearing in the books of a company at the end of year were CRR A/c Rs. 50,000, Security Premium Rs. 5,000, Revaluation Reserve Rs. 20,000, P & L A/c (Dr) Rs. 10,000. Maximum amount available for distribution of Bonus Share will be—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 55,000
(C) Rs. 45,000
(D) Rs. 57,000
Ans : (B)
69. R. G. Ltd. purchased machinery from K.G. Company for a book value of Rs. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10%. Debenture of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by—
(A) Rs. 4,00,000
(B) Rs. 5,00,000
(C) Rs. 3,20,000
(D) Rs. 4,80,000
Ans : (A)
70. Depletion method of depreciation is used in case of—
(A) Cattle, Loose Tools, etc.
(B) Mines, Quarries, etc.
(C) Machinery, Building, etc.
(D) Books
Ans : (B)
71. V. V. Bros. purchased a machine on 1st October, 2003 at cost Rs. 2,70,000 and spent Rs. 30,000 on its installation. The firm written off depreciation 10% per annum on original cost every year. The books are closed on 31st March every year. The machine is sold on 30 September, 2006 for Rs. 1,90,000. How much amount will be transferred to P & L A/c as loss on sale of machinery ?
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 20,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 40,000
Ans : (B)
72. Accounting for Intangible Assets are related to—
(A) AS - 10
(B) AS - 12
(C) AS - 24
(D) AS - 26
Ans : (D)
73. Indian Accounting Standard – 28 is related to—
(A) Accounting for taxes on income
(B) Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Venture
(C) Impairment of Assets
(D) Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets
Ans : (C)
74. Recording of capital contributed by the owner as liability ensures the adherence of principle of—
(A) Consistency
(B) Going concern
(C) Separate entity
(D) Materiality
Ans : (C)
75. A company made the purchases of an item during its financial year.
January 2007 200 @ Rs. 50 each
May 2007 400 @ Rs. 60 each
August 2007 600 @ Rs. 70 each
Novem- 2007 300 @ Rs. 80 each ber
Closing inventories were 500 articles. Find out the value of closing stock as per Weighted Average Method—
(A) 33,333•33
(B) 16,666•66
(C) 66,666•67
(D) 96,666•66
Ans : (A)
76. A fire occurred in the premises of ‘M’ Ltd. on 30th September, 2007. The stock was destroyed except to the extent of Rs. 10,000. From the information given below, calculate the value of stock burnt by fire on 30th September, 2007. Stock on 1st April 2006, Rs. 90,000, Purchases less returns during 2006-07—10,00,000, Sales less returns during 2006-07, 15,00,000; Stock on 31st March, 2007—1,80,000, Purchases less returns from 1st April 2007 to 30th September 2007, 7,00,000. Sales less returns from 1st April, 2007 to 30th September 2007, 10,00,000.
It was the practice of the company to value stock less 10%—
(A) 3,00,000
(B) 2,90,000
(C) 1,90,000
(D) 2,80,000
Ans : (B)
77. Social Accounting means—
(A) Accounting for social benefits and social costs
(B) Accounting for Government Revenue & Govt. Cost
(C) Accounting for private revenue and private cost
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
78. It is given that cost of stock is Rs. 100. However, its market price is Rs. 98 (buying) and Rs. 140 (selling). If the market price is interpreted as the replacement cost, then the stock should be valued at—
(A) Rs. 98
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 140
(D) Rs. 40
Ans : (A)
79. If the goods purchased are in transit, then the Journal Entry at the end of the period will be—
(A) Goods in Transit A/c Dr. To Supplier’s A/c
(B) Goods in transit A/c Dr. To Purchases A/c
(C) Stock A/c Dr. To Goods in Transit A/c
(D) Supplier’s A/c Dr. To Goods in Transit
Ans : (B)
80. Calculate Return on Investment/ Return on Proprietor’s fund. Gross profit of a firm is Rs. 3,20,000, Operating expenses Rs. 1,00,000, Taxes Rs. 20,000, Owner’s fund Rs. 5,00,000, Debenture Interest Rs. 50,000—
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Ans : (B)
81. The following figures are presented to you—
Year Sales Profit/Loss
1999 Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 10,000 (Loss)
2000 Rs. 2,50,000 Rs. 20,000 (Profit)
Calculate Profit Volume Ratio.
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
Ans : (D)
82. The following particulars relate to manufacturing factory for the month of March 2008. Variable cost per unit Rs. 11; Fixed factory overhead Rs. 5,40,000; Fixed selling overhead Rs. 2,52,000; Variable selling cost Rs. 3; Sales Price per unit Rs. 20. Find out the Break-Even Point in rupees—
(A) Rs. 26,40,000
(B) Rs. 30,80,000
(C) Rs. 25,20,000
(D) Rs. 27,40,000
Ans : (C)
83. The following information is obtained from the records of K Co. Ltd.—
Sales (1,00,000 units) Rs. 1,00,000
Variable cost Rs. 40,000
Fixed cost Rs. 30,000
Find out margin of safety.
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 25,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 50,000
Ans : (D)
84. A manufacturer is operating at 50% of its capacity, due to competition. The following are the details. Raw materials Rs. 6 per unit, Direct Labour Rs. 4 per unit. variable overhead - Rs. 3 per unit, fixed overhead - Rs. 2 per unit, output 15,000 units, total cost Rs. 2,25,000, sales value Rs. 2,10,000, loss Rs. 15,000. A foreign customer wants to buy 6,000 units at Rs. 13•50 per unit and the company does not know whether to accept or not as it is suffering losses at the current level. Advise what he should do ?
(A) Accept the offer
(B) Reject the offer
(C) Remains indifferent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
85. I took the order for 5,000 units at Rs. 50 each because I got more than the cost incurred to produce them, said the Works Manager, and produced the following figures—
Particulars Before accepting the order After accepting the order
Rs. Rs.
Variable costs 2,50,000 4,00,000
Fixed costs 7,50,000 8,51,000
Total costs 10,00,000 12,51,000
Cost/unit 40 41•70
Analyse the above figures and the decision taken.
Acceptance of this offer has—
(A) Lowered his profit by Rs. 500
(B) Lowered his profit by Rs. 1,000
(C) Lowered his profit by Rs. 1,500
(D) Lowered his profit by Rs. 2,000
Ans : (C)
86. The following data are provided to you.
Fixed cost - Rs. 20,000; Selling price per unit - Rs. 25, Variable cost per unit - Rs. 20. Find out selling price per unit if B.E.P. is brought down to 2,000 units.
(A) Rs. 30
(B) Rs. 40
(C) Rs. 50
(D) Rs. 60
Ans : (C)
87. Among the following which is not an error of commission ?
(A) Wrong totalling
(B) Recording with wrong amount
(C) Wrong posting
(D) Escape from posting
Ans : (D)
88. Internal check means—
(A) Checking of accounts by cashier
(B) Checking of accounts by the Internal Auditor
(C) Checking the work of one person by another automatically
(D) Managerial control internally over the subordinates
Ans : (C)
89. Verification includes—
(A) Valuation
(B) Existence
(C) Ownership & Title
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
90. By whom from the following, auditor can be reappointed ?
(A) Directors
(B) Shareholders
(C) Central Government
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
91. Auditor shall be punished with imprisonment for a maximum period of ……… under Section 539 for falsification in the books of accounts.
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 9 years
Ans : (C)
92. “Auditor is not an insurer.” In which of the following cases, the decision has been given ?
(A) The Kingston Cotton Mills Co. Ltd. (1986)
(B) London & General Bank (1895)
(C) Allen Craig & Co. Ltd. (1934)
(D) Irish Woollen Co. Ltd.
Ans : (B)
93. The Section 80A of the Companies’ Act is related with the redemption of—
(A) Debentures
(B) Redeemable preference shares
(C) Irredeemable preference shares
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
94. Company Auditor is responsible—
(A) For directors
(B) For shareholders
(C) For public
(D) For creditors
Ans : (B)
95. In Balance Sheet, Audit Accounts are audited—
(A) Monthly
(B) Bi-monthly
(C) Annually or half yearly
(D) Quarterly
Ans : (C)
96. Audit adopted by banking company is—
(A) Continuous Audit
(B) Periodical Audit
(C) Internal Audit
(D) Balance Sheet Audit
Ans : (A)
97. Which of the following have lien of Company Auditor ?
(A) Books of Accounts of the Company
(B) Vouchers of the Company
(C) Auditor’s working paper
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)
98. To appoint new auditor in place of retiring auditor, to adopt the procedure, which section of Companies’ Act, 1956 is applicable ?
(A) 223
(B) 224
(C) 225
(D) 226
Ans : (B)
99. “A company has a separate legal existence from its members.” This principle was first laid down in case of—
(A) Saloman Vs. Saloman & Co. Ltd. (1897)
(B) Daimler Co. Ltd. Vs. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. (1916)
(C) State of U. P. Vs. Renu Sagar Power Co. (1991)
(D) Santunu Roy Vs. Union of India (1989)
Ans : (A)
100. According to ownership, Government Company means ……… share.
(A) Whose paid-up share capital’s 48%, shares are owned by Government
(B) Whose paid-up share capital’s 49% shares are owned by Government
(C) Whose paid-up share capital’s 50% shares are owned by Government
(D) Whose paid-up share capital’s 51% shares are owned by Government
Ans : (D)
Commerce : Solved Paper
1. The minimum paid-up share capital for a public company shall be—
(A) Rs. 1 lakh
(B) Rs. 2 lakhs
(C) Rs. 3 lakhs
(D) Rs. 5 lakhs
Ans : (D)
2. Internal activity of a company is going to be performed according to established regulations. This assumption is provided as a right by—
(A) Doctrine of Indoor Management
(B) Doctrine of Constructive Notice
(C) Doctrine of Ultravires
(D) Doctrine of Intravires
Ans : (A)
3. A public company can start its business operations after getting—
(A) Certificate of Incorporation
(B) Minimum Subscription
(C) Certificate of Commencement of Business
(D) Permission of the Controller of Capital Issue
Ans : (C)
4. Under Section 275 of the Companies’ Act, 1956 a person can become director in public company of not more than—
(A) 5 companies
(B) 10 companies
(C) 15 companies
(D) 20 companies
Ans : (C)
5. Articles of Association can be altered by passing—
(A) An ordinary resolution in Annual General Meeting
(B) A special resolution in Annual General Meeting
(C) A resolution with special notice
(D) Without any resolution
Ans : (B)
6. In case of Board Meetings the Quorum must be present—
(A) At the commencement of the meeting
(B) At the termination of the meeting
(C) Throughout the meeting
(D) At the commencement and termination both
Ans : (A)
7. In a public company the minimum number for having a Quorum in a meeting is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Ans : (C)
8. The capital issues of public limited companies are subject to guidelines issued by—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Central Government
(C) Central Bank of India
(D) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Ans : (D)
9. Disinvestment of shares means—
(A) To sale the shares of private company to public
(B) To sale the shares of public company to the public
(C) To sale the shares of Government company to the public
(D) To sale of shares by holding company to its subsidiary company
Ans : (B)
10. When the existing companies raise additional funds by issue of shares to the existing shareholders in proportion to their existing shareholdings, it is called—
(A) Buyback of shares
(B) Issue of shares at premium
(C) Issue of shares at discount
(D) Right shares issue
Ans : (D)
11. Bombay Stock Exchange Sensex consists of ……… script as on 31st March, 2005.
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
Ans : (C)
12. The basic aim of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is to—
(A) Develop an effective and efficient monitoring and control system for the Indian Capital Market
(B) To help Bombay Stock Exchange only
(C) To help National Stock Exchange of India Ltd. only
(D) To help OTC Exchange of India only
Ans : (A)
13. Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Chester Bernard
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans : (D)
14. Principle of ‘Unity of Command’ means—
(A) Unity of directions
(B) To receive orders from one officer only
(C) A fixed place for every person
(D) Proper delegation to subordinates
Ans : (B)
15. Managerial Planning is a—
(A) Middle Level Function
(B) Lower Level Function
(C) Top Level Function
(D) All Level Function
Ans : (D)
16. “Organisation is the foundation of management.” This statement is given by—
(A) Henry Ford
(B) Haney
(C) Keeling
(D) Lansberry Fish
Ans : (A)
17. The number of subordinates a superior can effectively handle is called—
(A) Cooperation
(B) Coordination
(C) Supervision
(D) Span of control
Ans : (D)
18. In Need Hierarchy Theory of Abraham H. Maslow, Self Actualisation needs are at level—
(A) Lower level needs
(B) Middle level needs
(C) Higher level needs
(D) Highest level needs
Ans : (A)
19. Motivation - Hygiene Theory was propounded by—
(A) Abraham H. Maslow
(B) Fredrick Herzberg
(C) Peter F. Druker
(D) Argyris Chris
Ans : (B)
20. ‘Carrot and Stick’ principle is given in Theory—
(A) McGregor Theory X
(B) McGregor Theory Y
(C) William Ouchi Theory Z
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
21. “Organisation is a Management Process by which people, functions and physical factors are brought together to form a controllable unit.” This definition is given by—
(A) Haney
(B) Kelling B. Lewis
(C) Oliver Sheldon
(D) Cornell
Ans : (C)
22. Out of the following forms, which form of organisation is the oldest one ?
(A) Line and staff organisation
(B) Functional organisation
(C) Committee organisation
(D) Line organisation
Ans : (D)
23. “A body of persons elected or appointed to meet on an organised basis for the discussion and dealing of matters brought before it.” It is called—
(A) Functional organisation
(B) Formal organisation
(C) Committee organisation
(D) Informal organisation
Ans : (C)
24. Due to coordination—
(A) There is a unity of order
(B) There is a unity of direction
(C) There is a leadership
(D) Employees are motivated
Ans : (A)
25. In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
(A) To machines
(B) To paper work
(C) To man
(D) To production
Ans : (C)
26. The Essence of Control is—
(A) To take decision
(B) To take corrective action
(C) To make enquiry
(D) To motivate
Ans : (B)
27. An annual general meeting may be called after giving shorter notice instead of 21 clear days, if consent is accorded by—
(A) All the directors of company
(B) All the members entitled to vote there at
(C) Majority of members entitled to vote there all
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
28. “The position of a Company Secretary is like that of a hub in a bicycle wheel.” This statement shows the—
(A) Importance of Company Secretary
(B) Rights of Company Secretary
(C) Duties of Company Secretary
(D) Liabilities of Company Secretary
Ans : (A)
29. The first Secretary of the company is appointed by—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Promoters
(C) Government
(D) Directors
Ans : (B)
30. Appointment of full time Company Secretary is compulsory in all those companies, whose paidup share capital is—
(A) Rs. 50 lakhs or more
(B) Rs. 1 crore or more
(C) Rs. 2 crores or more
(D) Rs. 3 crores of more
Ans : (C)
31. A meeting of the shareholders held only once during the life time of the company is known as—
(A) Meeting of the Directors
(B) Meeting of the Creditors
(C) Extraordinary General Meeting
(D) Statutory Meeting
Ans : (D)
32. For calling the Extraordinary General Meeting a clear notice of ……… days must be given to all the members.
(A) 7
(B) 15
(C) 21
(D) 30
Ans : (C)
33. Appointment of a person who is a Director, as a Secretary in the Company would require approval of the company by—
(A) Special Resolution
(B) Ordinary Resolution
(C) Resolution by circulation
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
34. The first Stock Exchange in India was established in—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Delhi
(C) Bombay
(D) Madras
Ans : (C)
35. Blue Chips Shares mean—
(A) Those shares which are listed in Stock Exchange
(B) Those shares whose guarantee is given by Government
(C) Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly
(D) Those shares which are issued at first time
Ans : (C)
36. FEMA stands for—
(A) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(B) Funds Exchange Management Act
(C) Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
(D) Future Exchange Management Act
Ans : (A)
37. What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
(A) It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
(B) It is global in its membership
(C) It has far wider scope than GATT
(D) Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Ans : (D)
38. Convertibility of the rupee implies—
(A) Being able to convert rupees notes into gold
(B) Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by marketforces
(C) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa
(D) Developing an international market for currencies in India
Ans : (C)
39. ……… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade.
(A) ISRD
(B) ADS
(C) WTO
(D) DIMF
Ans : (C)
40. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
(B) Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
(C) Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
41. The present World Economic Depression first of all, started from which country ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) France
(D) India
Ans : (A)
42. Which, institution is known as the ‘Soft Loan Window’ of World Bank ?
(A) I.F.C. (International Financial Corporation)
(B) I.D.A. (International Development Association)
(C) I.M.F. (International Monetary Fund)
(D) Indian Development Forum
Ans : (B)
43. Which is not a insurable risk ?
(A) Accident Risk
(B) Loss of Crops Risk
(C) The Risk of Trading in New Market
(D) The Risk of Sinking of a Ship
Ans : (C)
44. The Life Insurance in India was nationalised in the year—
(A) 1870
(B) 1956
(C) 1960
(D) 1966
Ans : (B)
45. Fire Insurance is based on the principle of—
(A) Utmost Good faith
(B) Insurable Interest
(C) Indemnity
(D) Cooperation
Ans : (C)
46. In order to reduce the risk of heavy insurance the insurer passes on some business to the other company, it is called—
(A) Reinsurance
(B) Double Insurance
(C) Joint Insurance Policy
(D) Separate Insurance
Ans : (A)
47. Contents of Marine Insurance include—
(A) Insurance of Cargo only
(B) Insurance of Freight only
(C) Insurance of Hull only
(D) Insurance of Cargo, Freight & Hull
Ans : (D)
48. The object of ‘Agenda’ is to inform—
(A) About the profitability and activity
(B) About the progress of company
(C) About the matter in sequence to be discussed in the meeting
(D) About the routine matters
Ans : (C)
49. The Branch of Accounting which is concerned with the processing and presenting data for decision making is known as—
(A) Common Dollar Accounting
(B) Social Accounting
(C) Cost Accounting
(D) Management Accounting
Ans : (D)
50. Final accounts prepared in narrative style are in—
(A) Horizontal form
(B) Accounts form
(C) Vertical form
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
51. According to Balance Sheet equation concept, the capital will be—
(A) Capital = Liabilities – Assets
(B) Capital = Fixed Assets –
Current Assests
(C) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
(D) Capital = Assets + Liabilities
Ans : (C)
52. In common size Balance Sheet analysis we evaluate—
(A) Increase or decrease over two years is analysed
(B) Only increase over two years is analysed
(C) Only decrease over two years is analysed
(D) All assets and liabilities are expressed in terms of percentage of total
Ans : (D)
53. Increase in fixed asset due to purchase is—
(A) Source of fund
(B) Fund from operation
(C) Use of fund
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
54. For the purpose of preparation of fund flow statement, fund means—
(A) Total resources
(B) Cash/bank balances
(C) Current Assets
(D) Working capital
Ans : (D)
55. The following data, relates to manufacturing company for the year 2006-07—
Net Profit as per P & L A/c—Rs. 2,40,000; Depreciation—Rs. 80,000; Goodwill written-off—Rs. 40,000, Profit on Sale of Fixed Assets—Rs. 16,000, Proposed Dividend—Rs. 96,000. The fund from operation would be—
(A) Rs. 4,40,000
(B) Rs. 4,00,000
(C) Rs. 6,40,000
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
56. Total sales is Rs. 7,60,000, cash sales Rs. 30,000 collection period is 25 days, debtors at Balance Sheet date will be—
(A) Rs. 80,000
(B) Rs. 70,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 50,000
Ans : (D)
57. Price earning ratio is 83•33% and E.P.S. is Rs. 30. The market price of equity share will be—
(A) Rs. 33•33
(B) Rs. 66•67
(C) Rs. 20
(D) Rs. 25
Ans : (D)
58. If the current ratio is 2, current assests are worth Rs. 1,600, if current ratio is not allowed to fall below 1•5, how much additional can be borrowed by the company on the short term basis ?
(A) Rs. 400
(B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 2,733
(D) Rs. 800
Ans : (A)
59. Rate of Gross Profit on cost is 25%. Total sales is Rs. 1,00,000 and Average Stock is Rs. 1,60,000. Stock Turnover Ratio will be—
(A) 0•5 times
(B) 0•8 times
(C) 0•10 times
(D) 0•4 times
Ans : (A)
60. Average stock of firm is Rs. 80,000, the opening stock is Rs. 10,000 less than closing stock. Find opening stock.
(A) Rs. 95,000
(B) Rs. 85,000
(C) Rs. 90,000
(D) Rs. 75,000
Ans : (D)
61. Current Ratio is 3•75, Acid Test Ratio is 1•25 Stock Rs. 3,75,000, calculate working capital.
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 4,00,000
(C) Rs. 4,12,500
(D) Rs. 4,25,000
Ans : (C)
62. From the information given below, calculate Debt service coverage Ratio—
Net profit after interest and Tax Rs. 40,000, Depreciation Rs. 5,000, Rate of Income Tax 50%, 10% Mortgage Debentures Rs. 60,000. Fixed Interest Charges Rs. 6,000, Debenture Redemption Fund Appropriation of Outstanding Debentures 10%.
(A) 4•06 times
(B) 5•06 times
(C) 6•06 times
(D) 7•06 times
Ans : (A)
63. Share premium account can be used for—
(A) Paying tax liability
(B) Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
(C) Paying Dividend on shares
(D) Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Ans : (B)
64. Ploughing-back of profits means—
(A) Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
(B) Non-declaration of dividend in any year
(C) Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
(D) Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Ans : (D)
65. As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be—
(A) Added to paid up capital
(B) Deducted from called up capital
(C) Added to capital reserve
(D) Shown as a revenue reserve
Ans : (B)
66. A company invited application for subscription of 5,000 shares. The application were received for 6,000 shares. The shares were allotted on pro-rata basis. If X has applied for 180 shares how many shares would be allotted to him ?
(A) 180 shares
(B) 200 shares
(C) 150 shares
(D) 175 shares
Ans : (C)
67. Consider the following information pertaining to K Ltd. on September 4, 2005, the company issued 12,000 7% debentures having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 2•5%. On September 12, the company issued 25,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000 preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend @ 6% p.a. thereon. Bank balance on August 31, 2005 was Rs. 30,00,000. After effecting the above transaction, the Bank Balance as on September 30, 2005 will be—
(A) Rs. 35,15,000
(B) Rs. 33,80,000
(C) Rs. 33,45,000
(D) Rs. 35,05,000
Ans : (A)
68. The balance appearing in the books of a company at the end of year were CRR A/c Rs. 50,000, Security Premium Rs. 5,000, Revaluation Reserve Rs. 20,000, P & L A/c (Dr) Rs. 10,000. Maximum amount available for distribution of Bonus Share will be—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 55,000
(C) Rs. 45,000
(D) Rs. 57,000
Ans : (B)
69. R. G. Ltd. purchased machinery from K.G. Company for a book value of Rs. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10%. Debenture of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by—
(A) Rs. 4,00,000
(B) Rs. 5,00,000
(C) Rs. 3,20,000
(D) Rs. 4,80,000
Ans : (A)
70. Depletion method of depreciation is used in case of—
(A) Cattle, Loose Tools, etc.
(B) Mines, Quarries, etc.
(C) Machinery, Building, etc.
(D) Books
Ans : (B)
71. V. V. Bros. purchased a machine on 1st October, 2003 at cost Rs. 2,70,000 and spent Rs. 30,000 on its installation. The firm written off depreciation 10% per annum on original cost every year. The books are closed on 31st March every year. The machine is sold on 30 September, 2006 for Rs. 1,90,000. How much amount will be transferred to P & L A/c as loss on sale of machinery ?
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 20,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 40,000
Ans : (B)
72. Accounting for Intangible Assets are related to—
(A) AS - 10
(B) AS - 12
(C) AS - 24
(D) AS - 26
Ans : (D)
73. Indian Accounting Standard – 28 is related to—
(A) Accounting for taxes on income
(B) Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Venture
(C) Impairment of Assets
(D) Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets
Ans : (C)
74. Recording of capital contributed by the owner as liability ensures the adherence of principle of—
(A) Consistency
(B) Going concern
(C) Separate entity
(D) Materiality
Ans : (C)
75. A company made the purchases of an item during its financial year.
January 2007 200 @ Rs. 50 each
May 2007 400 @ Rs. 60 each
August 2007 600 @ Rs. 70 each
Novem- 2007 300 @ Rs. 80 each ber
Closing inventories were 500 articles. Find out the value of closing stock as per Weighted Average Method—
(A) 33,333•33
(B) 16,666•66
(C) 66,666•67
(D) 96,666•66
Ans : (A)
76. A fire occurred in the premises of ‘M’ Ltd. on 30th September, 2007. The stock was destroyed except to the extent of Rs. 10,000. From the information given below, calculate the value of stock burnt by fire on 30th September, 2007. Stock on 1st April 2006, Rs. 90,000, Purchases less returns during 2006-07—10,00,000, Sales less returns during 2006-07, 15,00,000; Stock on 31st March, 2007—1,80,000, Purchases less returns from 1st April 2007 to 30th September 2007, 7,00,000. Sales less returns from 1st April, 2007 to 30th September 2007, 10,00,000.
It was the practice of the company to value stock less 10%—
(A) 3,00,000
(B) 2,90,000
(C) 1,90,000
(D) 2,80,000
Ans : (B)
77. Social Accounting means—
(A) Accounting for social benefits and social costs
(B) Accounting for Government Revenue & Govt. Cost
(C) Accounting for private revenue and private cost
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
78. It is given that cost of stock is Rs. 100. However, its market price is Rs. 98 (buying) and Rs. 140 (selling). If the market price is interpreted as the replacement cost, then the stock should be valued at—
(A) Rs. 98
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 140
(D) Rs. 40
Ans : (A)
79. If the goods purchased are in transit, then the Journal Entry at the end of the period will be—
(A) Goods in Transit A/c Dr. To Supplier’s A/c
(B) Goods in transit A/c Dr. To Purchases A/c
(C) Stock A/c Dr. To Goods in Transit A/c
(D) Supplier’s A/c Dr. To Goods in Transit
Ans : (B)
80. Calculate Return on Investment/ Return on Proprietor’s fund. Gross profit of a firm is Rs. 3,20,000, Operating expenses Rs. 1,00,000, Taxes Rs. 20,000, Owner’s fund Rs. 5,00,000, Debenture Interest Rs. 50,000—
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Ans : (B)
81. The following figures are presented to you—
Year Sales Profit/Loss
1999 Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 10,000 (Loss)
2000 Rs. 2,50,000 Rs. 20,000 (Profit)
Calculate Profit Volume Ratio.
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
Ans : (D)
82. The following particulars relate to manufacturing factory for the month of March 2008. Variable cost per unit Rs. 11; Fixed factory overhead Rs. 5,40,000; Fixed selling overhead Rs. 2,52,000; Variable selling cost Rs. 3; Sales Price per unit Rs. 20. Find out the Break-Even Point in rupees—
(A) Rs. 26,40,000
(B) Rs. 30,80,000
(C) Rs. 25,20,000
(D) Rs. 27,40,000
Ans : (C)
83. The following information is obtained from the records of K Co. Ltd.—
Sales (1,00,000 units) Rs. 1,00,000
Variable cost Rs. 40,000
Fixed cost Rs. 30,000
Find out margin of safety.
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 25,000
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 50,000
Ans : (D)
84. A manufacturer is operating at 50% of its capacity, due to competition. The following are the details. Raw materials Rs. 6 per unit, Direct Labour Rs. 4 per unit. variable overhead - Rs. 3 per unit, fixed overhead - Rs. 2 per unit, output 15,000 units, total cost Rs. 2,25,000, sales value Rs. 2,10,000, loss Rs. 15,000. A foreign customer wants to buy 6,000 units at Rs. 13•50 per unit and the company does not know whether to accept or not as it is suffering losses at the current level. Advise what he should do ?
(A) Accept the offer
(B) Reject the offer
(C) Remains indifferent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
85. I took the order for 5,000 units at Rs. 50 each because I got more than the cost incurred to produce them, said the Works Manager, and produced the following figures—
Particulars Before accepting the order After accepting the order
Rs. Rs.
Variable costs 2,50,000 4,00,000
Fixed costs 7,50,000 8,51,000
Total costs 10,00,000 12,51,000
Cost/unit 40 41•70
Analyse the above figures and the decision taken.
Acceptance of this offer has—
(A) Lowered his profit by Rs. 500
(B) Lowered his profit by Rs. 1,000
(C) Lowered his profit by Rs. 1,500
(D) Lowered his profit by Rs. 2,000
Ans : (C)
86. The following data are provided to you.
Fixed cost - Rs. 20,000; Selling price per unit - Rs. 25, Variable cost per unit - Rs. 20. Find out selling price per unit if B.E.P. is brought down to 2,000 units.
(A) Rs. 30
(B) Rs. 40
(C) Rs. 50
(D) Rs. 60
Ans : (C)
87. Among the following which is not an error of commission ?
(A) Wrong totalling
(B) Recording with wrong amount
(C) Wrong posting
(D) Escape from posting
Ans : (D)
88. Internal check means—
(A) Checking of accounts by cashier
(B) Checking of accounts by the Internal Auditor
(C) Checking the work of one person by another automatically
(D) Managerial control internally over the subordinates
Ans : (C)
89. Verification includes—
(A) Valuation
(B) Existence
(C) Ownership & Title
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
90. By whom from the following, auditor can be reappointed ?
(A) Directors
(B) Shareholders
(C) Central Government
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
91. Auditor shall be punished with imprisonment for a maximum period of ……… under Section 539 for falsification in the books of accounts.
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 9 years
Ans : (C)
92. “Auditor is not an insurer.” In which of the following cases, the decision has been given ?
(A) The Kingston Cotton Mills Co. Ltd. (1986)
(B) London & General Bank (1895)
(C) Allen Craig & Co. Ltd. (1934)
(D) Irish Woollen Co. Ltd.
Ans : (B)
93. The Section 80A of the Companies’ Act is related with the redemption of—
(A) Debentures
(B) Redeemable preference shares
(C) Irredeemable preference shares
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
94. Company Auditor is responsible—
(A) For directors
(B) For shareholders
(C) For public
(D) For creditors
Ans : (B)
95. In Balance Sheet, Audit Accounts are audited—
(A) Monthly
(B) Bi-monthly
(C) Annually or half yearly
(D) Quarterly
Ans : (C)
96. Audit adopted by banking company is—
(A) Continuous Audit
(B) Periodical Audit
(C) Internal Audit
(D) Balance Sheet Audit
Ans : (A)
97. Which of the following have lien of Company Auditor ?
(A) Books of Accounts of the Company
(B) Vouchers of the Company
(C) Auditor’s working paper
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)
98. To appoint new auditor in place of retiring auditor, to adopt the procedure, which section of Companies’ Act, 1956 is applicable ?
(A) 223
(B) 224
(C) 225
(D) 226
Ans : (B)
99. “A company has a separate legal existence from its members.” This principle was first laid down in case of—
(A) Saloman Vs. Saloman & Co. Ltd. (1897)
(B) Daimler Co. Ltd. Vs. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. (1916)
(C) State of U. P. Vs. Renu Sagar Power Co. (1991)
(D) Santunu Roy Vs. Union of India (1989)
Ans : (A)
100. According to ownership, Government Company means ……… share.
(A) Whose paid-up share capital’s 48%, shares are owned by Government
(B) Whose paid-up share capital’s 49% shares are owned by Government
(C) Whose paid-up share capital’s 50% shares are owned by Government
(D) Whose paid-up share capital’s 51% shares are owned by Government
Ans : (D)
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2007 : Solved Paper
R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2007
Public Administration : Solved Paper
1. Under which Article of Constitution the Governor of State is bound to lay before House of Legislature the Annual Financial Statement of State ?
(A) Article-111
(B) Article-117
(C) Article-202
(D) Article-203
Ans : (C)
2. In Britain, responsibility for Central Co-ordination and Management of Civil Services is divided between—
(A) Cabinet office and Treasury
(B) Treasury and Home Department
(C) Prime Minister and Home Department
(D) Cabinet Office and Prime Minister Office
Ans : (B)
3. Who is in-charge of Office of Public Service and Science in Britain ?
(A) Cabinet Secretary
(B) The Chancellor of the Duchy of Lancaster
(C) Lord Chancellor
(D) Chancellor of Exchequer
Ans : (A)
4. The term ‘Economic and Social Planning’ is included in Indian Constitution. In which part of following this provision has been made ?
(A) Directive Principles for State Policy
(B) Preamble of Constitution
(C) Union List
(D) Concurrent List
Ans : (D)
5. Who was the first Lokayukta of Rajasthan ?
(A) K.P.S. Menon
(B) I.G. Dua
(C) D.P. Gupta
(D) M.C. Jain
Ans : (C)
6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Kind of Budget)
(a) Line Item Budget
(b) Performance Budget
(c) Planning Programming Budget.
(d) Zero-based Budget.
List-II (Basic Orientation of Budget)
1. Control
2. Decision making
3. Management
4. Planning
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (A)
7. Personnel administration of employees of Zila Parishad and Panchayat Samiti in Rajasthan is managed by—
(A) Zila Parishad
(B) State Government
(C) District Administration
(D) Zila Establishment Committee
Ans : (A)
8. Who will make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of Government of India and for allocation among Ministers of the said business ?
(A) President
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Parliament
Ans : (A)
9. Which one is not characteristics of ‘Sala Model’ of Riggs ?
(A) Actual behaviour is similar to formal expectations
(B) Institutional corruption
(C) Nepotism in recruitment
(D) Above all
Ans : (A)
10. Discussion on organisation of Planning Commission is incomplete without reference to its attached bodies. Consider the following—
1. Programme Evaluation Organisation
2. National Informatic Centre
3. Plan Finance Division
4. Department of Rural Development
Which organisations are attached to Planning Commission ?
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (A)
11. In which year the institution of Lokayukta was established in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1970
(B) 1971
(C) 1972
(D) 1973
Ans : (D)
12. Who had recommended for productive planning with a constitutional status in India ?
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal, Nehru
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) K.C. Neogi
Ans : (C)
13. ‘The Collector sometimes when overburdened with work, grumbles that he has the life of a dog, but knows that he has work of a man.’ Who said it ?
(A) L.S.S.O. Malley
(B) Ramsay MacDonald
(C) Mangat Rai
(D) P.R. Dubhasi
Ans : (A)
14. The CLECTS is prismatic society of Riggs are—
(A) Elite groups who use traditional clouts to win election
(B) Hereditary leaders of castegroup
(C) Elected leader of middle class
(D) Influential political leader
Ans : (A)
15. The Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in England is Parliamentary Ombudsman.
Consider the following—
1. Is independent of Government.
2. Investigates complaints referred through Member of Parliament.
3. Investigates complaint about Government policy.
4. Reports his findings to Member of Parliament.
What are the characteristics of Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration ?
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) Above all
Ans : (C)
16. Who has coined the term Cybernetics ?
(A) Weaver
(B) Wilber Schramm
(C) Claude Shannon
(D) Norbert Weiner
Ans : (D)
17. Consider the following steps—
1. Identification of problem
2. Search for alternatives
3. Evaluation of alternatives
4. Comparison of alternatives
Which of the above is the correct step of decision-making ?
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 1, 2, 4, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (C)
18. According to Likert, which of the following types of leadership is the most successful and effective ?
(A) Exploitative-authoritative
(B) Benevolent-authoritative
(C) Participative
(D) Consultative
Ans : (C)
19. The Theory X assumption did not cover which of the following ?
(A) Most of workers not inherently dislike work
(B) Most of people must be coerced, controlled or threatened for the achievement of organizational goals
(C) The average human being prefers to be directed
(D) They have relatively little ambitions and wants
Ans : (A)
20. Which one of the following is covered under Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States
(D) Jurisdiction of functions of Panchayats
Ans : (D)
21. In a communication process, the sender of information seeks to establish a commonness with the receiver of information.
Consider the following—
1. When interacting with others, words, letters etc. are used.
2. Two or more persons are involved in communication.
3. The interaction process is motivated by sharing of information towards common
ends.
4. Above all.
What are the characteristics of communication ?
Codes :
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following Provisions of Indian Constitution provides constitutional safeguards to Civil Servants ?
(A) Article 309
(B) Article 310
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 32
Ans : (C)
23. Before the introduction of money bill in Lok Sabha, whose recommendation is necessary ?
(A) President
(B) Prime-Minister
(C) Speaker
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
24. The reservation in appointments in favour of any backward class has a constitutional base. In which Article of Indian Constitution such provision has been made ?
(A) Article 16(i)
(B) Article 16(ii)
(C) Article 16(iii)
(D) Article 16(iv)
Ans : (D)
25. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Statements)
(a) Budget is series of goals with price tag attached.
(b) Finance is the fuel of Administrative Machinery.
(c) Government is Finance.
(d) All undertakings depend upon finance, hence foremost, attention shall be paid to the treasury.
List-II (Thinkers)
1. Kautilya
2. Lloyd George
3. P. K. Wattal
4. Aron Wildavski
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (D)
26. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer —
List-I (Thinkers)
(a) Mouney and Reiley
(b) Etzioni
(c) Marvick
(d) Gouldner
List-II (Kinds of Leadership)
1. Institutionists, Specials, Hybrids.
2. Titular Leaders, controller, true organisers.
3. Officials, Informal Leaders, Formal Leaders.
4. Locals and Cosmopolitans.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (B)
27. Which one of the following is not the merit of Rank classification ?
(A) It is easy to understand and administer
(B) It defines the contents of any job in detail
(C) It encourages career opportunities
(D) It attracts competent persons to the service
Ans : (B)
28. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct—
List-I (Item)
(a) Constitution of Municipalities
(b) Reservation of seats in Municipal bodies.
(c) State Finance Commission.
(d) Term of Municipalities.
List-II (Articles of the Constitution)
1. 343 Q
2. 243 T
3. 243 Y
4. 243 U
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (B)
29. Which one of the following Writs gives the direction to an official for performance of duty ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo-Warranto
Ans : (B)
30. Which of the following are the tools of budgetary control exercised by the Parliament ?
1. Cut Motions
2. Financial Committees of Parliament.
3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
4. Approval of estimates for demands.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) Above all
Ans : (D)
31. Which one of the following is not the function of Public Officials ?
(A) To implement Government Policy
(B) To advise the political executive on policy matters
(C) To maintain Public relations
(D) To make the decision on policy
Ans : (D)
32. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of French Civil Services ?
(A) Recruitment and training are combined in the ENA
(B) The corps is a basic unit of Civil Services
(C) Ecole Polytechnique does not conduct training for higher technical corps
(D) It is elitist and very legalistic
Ans : (C)
33. ‘No Tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of Law’. Which Article of Indian Constitution provides this ?
(A) 110
(B) 117
(C) 265
(D) 266
Ans : (C)
34. The elections for various Panchayati Raj bodies in Rajasthan are managed by—
(A) Election Commission
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Directorate of Panchayati Raj
(D) Zila Parishad
Ans : (B)
35. The body of apex of the system of Administrative Court in France is the—
(A) Constitutional Council
(B) Economic and Social Council
(C) Council of State
(D) Court of Accounts
Ans : (C)
36. Who among the following is considered as first comparativist in Public Administration ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Goodnow
(C) L.D. White
(D) Fred Riggs
Ans : (A)
37. Which of the following is not characteristic of Development Administration ?
(A) Goal orientation
(B) Change orientation
(C) Result orientation
(D) Effectiveness
Ans : (C)
38. Which one of the following is not correct about anonymity of Civil Servants ?
(A) They cannot be criticised by name in the Legislature
(B) The minister concerned defends actions of Civil servant of his department
(C) Civil servants perform their official duty as per rules
(D) They cannot be held responsible for their acts of omission and commission
Ans : (D)
39. In Rajasthan, State PIanning Board was created on the recommendation of—
(A) Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Committee, 1967
(B) Secretariat Procedure Committee, 1971
(C) Secretariat Re-organisation Committee, 1969
(D) Secretaries Committee of the Government of Rajasthan, 1962
Ans : (A)
40. ‘The Chief Secretary’s job is not a technician’s or even a professional’s, he is not a knowledgable engineer, nor even a first class magistrate, he is a part of process of Government and in a democratic republic, part of human process.’ Who said it ?
(A) E.N. Magat Rai
(B) Dharmvir
(C) V. D. Murti
(D) Mohan Mukherjee
Ans : (A)
41. ‘Heuristics’ in context of decision making imply—
(A) Error and Trial method
(B) Rational decision making
(C) Decision based on deep analysis
(D) Decision based on bounded rationality
Ans : (A)
42. The ‘quorum’ for meetings of any Panchayati Raj body as per Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act is—
(A) 1/10 of total members
(B) 1/3 of total members
(C) 1/4 of total members
(D) None of above
Ans : (B)
43. Consider the following statements—
1. Budget is an economic horoscope of the country
2. Budget is a political document which provides a glimpse of entire philosophy of Government
3. Budget is formulated by Legislature
4. The budget is the nut-bolts of Public Policy
Which of the above are characteristics of Budget ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)
44. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Model)
(a) Linking Pin Model
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Garbage Cane Model
(d) Theory X and Theory Y
List-II (Given by)
1. Mc Gregor
2. Likert
3. Duncan
4. Cohen, March and Olson
5. Fred Fiedler
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 5 1
(C) 4 5 3 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 45-46) The following two items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion’ (A) and the other as ‘Reason’ (R). Carefully examine these two statements and select the answers to these items using codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans : (B)
45. Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers shall be collective responsible to the House of People.
Reason (R) : The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of President.
Ans : (B)
46. Assertion (A) : Ordinances should be promulgated only where absolutely necessary. A responsible Government should be careful about it.
Reason (R) : It gives the executive a clear power to legislate and is an encroachment on the jurisdiction of the Parliament.
Ans : (C)
47. Who said that in the science of administration whether public or private, the basic good is efficiency ?
(A) Urwick
(B) Luther Gulick
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) J.D. Mooney
Ans : (C)
48. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Statements)
(a) Public Administration stand in danger of … senescence.
(b) That Public Administration is that lusty young giant of a decade ago, may now evaporate as a field.
(c) Public Administrationists as administrative Platonists.
(d) Public Administrationists has an uncomfortable and second class citizenship.
List-II (Authors)
1. Martin Landau
2. Paul Appleby
3. Waldo
4. F.M. Marx
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (D)
49. Who said that Politics has to do with policies or expression of State will while Administration has to do with the execution of these policies ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Goodnow
(C) Waldo
(D) J.M. Gaus
Ans : (A)
50. Who said that administration is knowledge, knowledge is power. Administration is power, this simplistic syllogism is major reality of our post-industrial age—
(A) James D. Carrol
(B) James Fallows
(C) Jimmy Carter
(D) John F. Kennedy
Ans : (A)
51. Organisation is the form of every human association for attainment of a common purpose. Who has given this definition ?
(A) Gulick
(B) James D. Mooney
(C) L.D. White
(D) Simon
Ans : (B)
52. Willy-nilly, administration is every one’s concern. If we wish to survive, we had better be intelligent about it. Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Adams Brooks
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Wallace B. Donham
Ans : (B)
53. While making comparison with private administration, who said that Public Administration is adrift with compass or anchor ?
(A) Simon
(B) Peter Self
(C) Paul Appleby
(D) Ludwig Von Mises
Ans : (D)
54. Which one is not characteristics of closed model of organisation ?
(A) Routine task
(B) Conflict within organization is adjusted by interaction with peers
(C) Task specialisation
(D) Means are emphasized
Ans : (B)
55. Which one of the following is not a driving paradigm of New Public Management ?
(A) Devolving authority
(B) Developing competition and choice
(C) Providing responsive service
(D) Emphasis on procedure
Ans : (D)
56. Public Management is merger of normative orientation of Traditional Public Administration and the instrumental orientation of general management. Who said it ?
(A) L.A. Gunn
(B) Perry and Kramer
(C) Christopher Hood
(D) Tullock
Ans : (B)
57. Who was the first present give red-tape its sociological baptism ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Herbert Spencer
(C) Sidney Smith
(D) Alexander Leighton
Ans : (A)
58. Who said that organisation is the machine of management in its achievement of the ends determined by administration ?
(A) William Schulze
(B) Oliver Sheldon
(C) Gladden
(D) Luthur Gulick
Ans : (A)
59. Which of the following is concerned with the modification of role expectancies and welding of divergent elements to preserve organisation integrity ?
(A) Galbraith’s Information Processing
(B) Bakke’s Fusion Process
(C) Duncan’s Decision Making Process
(D) Likert’s Group Theory
Ans : (B)
60. The older theory or organization is not science, as often claimed, but theology in sense that it is a set of beliefs accepted on faith, not on demonstration of empirical reality. Who has given this statement ?
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Earl Latham
(D) Elton Mayo
Ans : (B)
61. Hierarchy is the linchpin that locks the form. Who said it ?
(A) Allen Schick
(B) Earl Latham
(C) Golembiewski
(D) Stephen K. Bailey
Ans : (A)
62. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Organisation)
(a) Project Organisation
(b) Matrix Organisation
(c) Horizontal Organisation
(d) Network Organisation
List-II (Characteristics)
1. Existence of horizontal and diagonal relationship.
2. Facilitate co-operation, team work and customer orientation.
3. Independent Unit have a link with a web of other unit.
4. Project organisation plus a functional organisation.
5. Flexible to facilitate management change.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 5 2 3
(C) 5 2 1 3
(D) 2 4 5 3
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 63-72) The following 10 items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion’ (A) and the other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two state-ments carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
63. Assertion (A) : The Principle of Organisation is from the literature of Business Administration.
Reason (R) : There is larger area of overlapping interest and ideas between two fields, however, and in the matter of organizational analysis, Public Administration is heavily indebted of Business Administration.
Ans : (A)
64. Assertion (A) : Administration is a fine art.
Reason (R) : It summons an imposing body of special talents on behalf of a collaborative creation which is integral to the conduct of civilized living today.
Ans : (A)
65. Assertion (A) : Administration is now so vast an area that a philosophy of administration come close to being a philosophy of life.
Reason (R) : Administration is concerned with both ends and means.
Ans : (B)
66. Assertion (A) : Generalists play an important role in the policy function of the Government in India.
Reason (R) : A large number of top post in the Union and State Administrations are manned by the specialists.
Ans : (C)
67. Assertion (A) : The system approach is based on the concept that organisation should be studied as a whole because the behaviour of one part has a considerable impact on the others.
Reason (R) : The system approach ignores the infractions between a system and its environment.
Ans : (C)
68. Assertion (A) : The concept of civil service neutrality is changing in developing countries.
Reason (R) : Civil servants play a pivotal role in the developing countries.
Ans : (B)
69. Assertion (A) : Paul Appleby suggested two basic types of changes in administration constant and episodic.
Reason (R) : Constant change is reorganisation and episodic is incremental change.
Ans : (C)
70. Assertion (A) : The grapevine supplements the formal sources of information in the organisation. It has its usefulness in organisation life.
Reason (R) : It creates an actual system of relationship in the organisation which is vastly different from what is formally prescribe.
Ans : (B)
71. Assertion (A) : Administrative State is the name given to that State in which the executive branch is dominate one even though it has the legislature and the judiciary.
Reason (R) : The function Public Administration have expanded in scale, range and nature.
Ans : (B)
72. Assertion (A) : Open model theorists dislike the rigidity, the inflexibility, emphasis on means and anti-humanist view of bureaucracy.
Reason (R) : Close model theorists consider organisation as a fluid network structure.
Ans : (C)
73. ‘Bureaucracy is the term usually applied to a system of Government to control of which is so completely in the hands of officials that their power jeopardize the liberty of ordinary citizens.’
Who has given this statement ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Lord Hewart
(D) Betrand Russel
Ans : (A)
74. Which one is major role of formal organisation ?
(A) Satisfaction of member
(B) Profitability of enterprises
(C) Service to the society
(D) Harmonious relations in the organization
Ans : (B)
75. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Name of Writer)
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Arther F. Bentley
(c) David Easton
(d) Wright Mills
List-II (Book)
1. Big Democracy
2. The Power Elite
3. The Process of Government
4. The Political system
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (C)
76. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Name of Thinker)
(a) Maslow
(b) Alderfer
(c) Pareek
(d) Porter and Lawler
List-II (Theory)
1. Need Hierarchy Theory
2. Mixed Model
3. Performance Satisfaction Theory
4. ERG Theory
5. Integrated Theory of Work Motivation.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 5
(B) 1 4 5 3
(C) 1 3 5 2
(D) 1 4 5 2
Ans : (B)
77. A significant approach to communication event is based on Laswell formula, that deal with—
(A) Communication sequence
(B) Communication – interpretation modes
(C) Communication competence
(D) Communication control
Ans : (D)
78. Which one of following leadership styles permits substantial delegation of authority to subordinates and allows them to set objective and solve problems themselves ?
(A) Autocratic Leadership
(B) Democratic Leadership
(C) Permissive Leadership
(D) Visionary Leadership
Ans : (B)
79. The basis of influence in informal organisation is—
(A) Organisational position
(B) Person
(C) Authority
(D) Closeness with higher people
Ans : (B)
80. Which of the following book is called in apt text of Entrepreneurial Government ?
(A) Reinventing Government (David Osborne and Ted Gaeber)
(B) Government and Politics in Africa (Goren Hyden)
(C) A Public Management for all Seasons. (Christopher Hood)
(D) The Public Sector : Concept, Model and Approaches (Jan- Erik-Lan)
Ans : (A)
81. Which one of the following is not created by Act of Parliament ?
(A) University Grants Commission
(B) Backward Class Commission
(C) Atomic Energy Commission
(D) Railway Board
Ans : (D)
82. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Book)
(a) Organisations
(b) Hand book of Organisations
(c) Organisations in Action
(d) Principles of Organization
List-II (Author)
1. March
2. Mooney and Reiley
3. James D Thompson
4. March and Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (D)
83. Which one of the following administrative theories is called Genric Management ?
(A) Bureaucratic
(B) Scientific Management
(C) Human Relations
(D) Administrative Management
Ans : (C)
84. Which of the following is defined as a process of analysing and collecting information relating to operation and responsibilities of a specific job ?
(A) Job description
(B) Job design
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job enlargement
Ans : (C)
85. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I
(a) Veblen
(b) Dewey
(c) Warnotte
(d) Lord Hewart
List-II
1. Professional Deformation
2. Occupational Psychosis
3. The great game of politics
4. Trained incapacity
5. New Despotism
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 5
(B) 4 2 1 5
(C) 2 1 5 2
(D) 3 2 4 5
Ans : (B)
86. To whom the Union Public Service Commission presents its annual report as to work done by the Commission ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Council of Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) President
Ans : (D)
87. On which date the Governor of Rajasthan assented The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act ?
(A) April 23, 1994
(B) May 21, 1994
(C) July 12, 1994
(D) October 2, 1994
Ans : (A)
88. Consider the following advantages claimed by the Centre for All India Services—
1. Control over State Administration.
2. Uniformed and highly standard of recruitment and training.
3. Experience is beneficial to both Centre and State.
4. Develop all India out-look.
Which are correct in above ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (B)
89. When was the first Central Service Commission set up ?
(A) 1919
(B) 1926
(C) 1935
(D) 1937
Ans : (B)
90. Who had coined the term All India Service ?
(A) Aitchon Commission, 1887
(B) Committee on Division of Function, 1918
(C) Government of India, 1919
(D) Maxwell Committee, 1937
Ans : (B)
91. Who was called the Father of Local Self Government during British Rule ?
(A) Mayo
(B) Montagu
(C) Ripon
(D) Chelmsford
Ans : (C)
92. Which one is not mission of organisation development ?
(A) Improve the ability of individual member
(B) Avoid human emotions
(C) Reduce the tension
(D) Team management
Ans : (B)
93. For which of the following the President’s recommendation is required for introduction of Bill ?
(A) Bill for formation of new states and alternation of areas or name of existing State
(B) Money Bills
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of above
Ans : (C)
94. Which one of the following country first developed scientific method for recruitment ?
(A) Ancient India
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Britain
(D) China
Ans : (D)
95. ‘Administration is a moral act and administrator is a moral agent.’ Who said it ?
(A) Adm Brook
(B) Dimock
(C) C.A. Bernard
(D) Ordway Tead
Ans : (D)
96. Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act has made detailed provisions for Gram Sabha. Which Articles of above Act is related with Gram Sabha ?
(A) Article 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) Article 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
(C) Article 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
(D) Article 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
Ans : (C)
97. There will be one or more Vigilance Committees to supervise the functions, implementation of schemes and other activities of Gram Panchayat in Rajasthan. Who will constitute the Vigilance Committee ?
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) Panchayat Samiti
(D) Gram Sabha
Ans : (D)
98. The middle-tier of Panchayati Raj Institution in Rajasthan is Panchayat Samiti, which is composed by—
1. Direct elected members for Panchayat Samiti.
2. Sarpanchs of Village Panchayats.
3. Member of State Legislative Assembly whose constituency partly or fully come
under the area of Panchayat Samiti.
4. Nominated members.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, and 4
Ans : (A)
99. Consider the following with reference to Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act—
1. Direct Elections of members at all levels.
2. Reservation of seats for weaker-sections.
3. Direct Elections of all chairperson at all levels.
4. Elections are managed by State Election Commission.
Which of above are existed in Rajasthan ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (B)
100. The tenure system for Civil Services in India was started during the period of—
(A) Bentinck
(B) Cornwallis
(C) Curzon
(D) Montagu
Ans : (C)
Public Administration : Solved Paper
1. Under which Article of Constitution the Governor of State is bound to lay before House of Legislature the Annual Financial Statement of State ?
(A) Article-111
(B) Article-117
(C) Article-202
(D) Article-203
Ans : (C)
2. In Britain, responsibility for Central Co-ordination and Management of Civil Services is divided between—
(A) Cabinet office and Treasury
(B) Treasury and Home Department
(C) Prime Minister and Home Department
(D) Cabinet Office and Prime Minister Office
Ans : (B)
3. Who is in-charge of Office of Public Service and Science in Britain ?
(A) Cabinet Secretary
(B) The Chancellor of the Duchy of Lancaster
(C) Lord Chancellor
(D) Chancellor of Exchequer
Ans : (A)
4. The term ‘Economic and Social Planning’ is included in Indian Constitution. In which part of following this provision has been made ?
(A) Directive Principles for State Policy
(B) Preamble of Constitution
(C) Union List
(D) Concurrent List
Ans : (D)
5. Who was the first Lokayukta of Rajasthan ?
(A) K.P.S. Menon
(B) I.G. Dua
(C) D.P. Gupta
(D) M.C. Jain
Ans : (C)
6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Kind of Budget)
(a) Line Item Budget
(b) Performance Budget
(c) Planning Programming Budget.
(d) Zero-based Budget.
List-II (Basic Orientation of Budget)
1. Control
2. Decision making
3. Management
4. Planning
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (A)
7. Personnel administration of employees of Zila Parishad and Panchayat Samiti in Rajasthan is managed by—
(A) Zila Parishad
(B) State Government
(C) District Administration
(D) Zila Establishment Committee
Ans : (A)
8. Who will make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of Government of India and for allocation among Ministers of the said business ?
(A) President
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Parliament
Ans : (A)
9. Which one is not characteristics of ‘Sala Model’ of Riggs ?
(A) Actual behaviour is similar to formal expectations
(B) Institutional corruption
(C) Nepotism in recruitment
(D) Above all
Ans : (A)
10. Discussion on organisation of Planning Commission is incomplete without reference to its attached bodies. Consider the following—
1. Programme Evaluation Organisation
2. National Informatic Centre
3. Plan Finance Division
4. Department of Rural Development
Which organisations are attached to Planning Commission ?
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (A)
11. In which year the institution of Lokayukta was established in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1970
(B) 1971
(C) 1972
(D) 1973
Ans : (D)
12. Who had recommended for productive planning with a constitutional status in India ?
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal, Nehru
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) K.C. Neogi
Ans : (C)
13. ‘The Collector sometimes when overburdened with work, grumbles that he has the life of a dog, but knows that he has work of a man.’ Who said it ?
(A) L.S.S.O. Malley
(B) Ramsay MacDonald
(C) Mangat Rai
(D) P.R. Dubhasi
Ans : (A)
14. The CLECTS is prismatic society of Riggs are—
(A) Elite groups who use traditional clouts to win election
(B) Hereditary leaders of castegroup
(C) Elected leader of middle class
(D) Influential political leader
Ans : (A)
15. The Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in England is Parliamentary Ombudsman.
Consider the following—
1. Is independent of Government.
2. Investigates complaints referred through Member of Parliament.
3. Investigates complaint about Government policy.
4. Reports his findings to Member of Parliament.
What are the characteristics of Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration ?
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) Above all
Ans : (C)
16. Who has coined the term Cybernetics ?
(A) Weaver
(B) Wilber Schramm
(C) Claude Shannon
(D) Norbert Weiner
Ans : (D)
17. Consider the following steps—
1. Identification of problem
2. Search for alternatives
3. Evaluation of alternatives
4. Comparison of alternatives
Which of the above is the correct step of decision-making ?
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 1, 2, 4, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (C)
18. According to Likert, which of the following types of leadership is the most successful and effective ?
(A) Exploitative-authoritative
(B) Benevolent-authoritative
(C) Participative
(D) Consultative
Ans : (C)
19. The Theory X assumption did not cover which of the following ?
(A) Most of workers not inherently dislike work
(B) Most of people must be coerced, controlled or threatened for the achievement of organizational goals
(C) The average human being prefers to be directed
(D) They have relatively little ambitions and wants
Ans : (A)
20. Which one of the following is covered under Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States
(D) Jurisdiction of functions of Panchayats
Ans : (D)
21. In a communication process, the sender of information seeks to establish a commonness with the receiver of information.
Consider the following—
1. When interacting with others, words, letters etc. are used.
2. Two or more persons are involved in communication.
3. The interaction process is motivated by sharing of information towards common
ends.
4. Above all.
What are the characteristics of communication ?
Codes :
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following Provisions of Indian Constitution provides constitutional safeguards to Civil Servants ?
(A) Article 309
(B) Article 310
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 32
Ans : (C)
23. Before the introduction of money bill in Lok Sabha, whose recommendation is necessary ?
(A) President
(B) Prime-Minister
(C) Speaker
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)
24. The reservation in appointments in favour of any backward class has a constitutional base. In which Article of Indian Constitution such provision has been made ?
(A) Article 16(i)
(B) Article 16(ii)
(C) Article 16(iii)
(D) Article 16(iv)
Ans : (D)
25. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Statements)
(a) Budget is series of goals with price tag attached.
(b) Finance is the fuel of Administrative Machinery.
(c) Government is Finance.
(d) All undertakings depend upon finance, hence foremost, attention shall be paid to the treasury.
List-II (Thinkers)
1. Kautilya
2. Lloyd George
3. P. K. Wattal
4. Aron Wildavski
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (D)
26. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer —
List-I (Thinkers)
(a) Mouney and Reiley
(b) Etzioni
(c) Marvick
(d) Gouldner
List-II (Kinds of Leadership)
1. Institutionists, Specials, Hybrids.
2. Titular Leaders, controller, true organisers.
3. Officials, Informal Leaders, Formal Leaders.
4. Locals and Cosmopolitans.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (B)
27. Which one of the following is not the merit of Rank classification ?
(A) It is easy to understand and administer
(B) It defines the contents of any job in detail
(C) It encourages career opportunities
(D) It attracts competent persons to the service
Ans : (B)
28. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct—
List-I (Item)
(a) Constitution of Municipalities
(b) Reservation of seats in Municipal bodies.
(c) State Finance Commission.
(d) Term of Municipalities.
List-II (Articles of the Constitution)
1. 343 Q
2. 243 T
3. 243 Y
4. 243 U
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (B)
29. Which one of the following Writs gives the direction to an official for performance of duty ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo-Warranto
Ans : (B)
30. Which of the following are the tools of budgetary control exercised by the Parliament ?
1. Cut Motions
2. Financial Committees of Parliament.
3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
4. Approval of estimates for demands.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) Above all
Ans : (D)
31. Which one of the following is not the function of Public Officials ?
(A) To implement Government Policy
(B) To advise the political executive on policy matters
(C) To maintain Public relations
(D) To make the decision on policy
Ans : (D)
32. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of French Civil Services ?
(A) Recruitment and training are combined in the ENA
(B) The corps is a basic unit of Civil Services
(C) Ecole Polytechnique does not conduct training for higher technical corps
(D) It is elitist and very legalistic
Ans : (C)
33. ‘No Tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of Law’. Which Article of Indian Constitution provides this ?
(A) 110
(B) 117
(C) 265
(D) 266
Ans : (C)
34. The elections for various Panchayati Raj bodies in Rajasthan are managed by—
(A) Election Commission
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Directorate of Panchayati Raj
(D) Zila Parishad
Ans : (B)
35. The body of apex of the system of Administrative Court in France is the—
(A) Constitutional Council
(B) Economic and Social Council
(C) Council of State
(D) Court of Accounts
Ans : (C)
36. Who among the following is considered as first comparativist in Public Administration ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Goodnow
(C) L.D. White
(D) Fred Riggs
Ans : (A)
37. Which of the following is not characteristic of Development Administration ?
(A) Goal orientation
(B) Change orientation
(C) Result orientation
(D) Effectiveness
Ans : (C)
38. Which one of the following is not correct about anonymity of Civil Servants ?
(A) They cannot be criticised by name in the Legislature
(B) The minister concerned defends actions of Civil servant of his department
(C) Civil servants perform their official duty as per rules
(D) They cannot be held responsible for their acts of omission and commission
Ans : (D)
39. In Rajasthan, State PIanning Board was created on the recommendation of—
(A) Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Committee, 1967
(B) Secretariat Procedure Committee, 1971
(C) Secretariat Re-organisation Committee, 1969
(D) Secretaries Committee of the Government of Rajasthan, 1962
Ans : (A)
40. ‘The Chief Secretary’s job is not a technician’s or even a professional’s, he is not a knowledgable engineer, nor even a first class magistrate, he is a part of process of Government and in a democratic republic, part of human process.’ Who said it ?
(A) E.N. Magat Rai
(B) Dharmvir
(C) V. D. Murti
(D) Mohan Mukherjee
Ans : (A)
41. ‘Heuristics’ in context of decision making imply—
(A) Error and Trial method
(B) Rational decision making
(C) Decision based on deep analysis
(D) Decision based on bounded rationality
Ans : (A)
42. The ‘quorum’ for meetings of any Panchayati Raj body as per Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act is—
(A) 1/10 of total members
(B) 1/3 of total members
(C) 1/4 of total members
(D) None of above
Ans : (B)
43. Consider the following statements—
1. Budget is an economic horoscope of the country
2. Budget is a political document which provides a glimpse of entire philosophy of Government
3. Budget is formulated by Legislature
4. The budget is the nut-bolts of Public Policy
Which of the above are characteristics of Budget ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)
44. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Model)
(a) Linking Pin Model
(b) Decision Tree
(c) Garbage Cane Model
(d) Theory X and Theory Y
List-II (Given by)
1. Mc Gregor
2. Likert
3. Duncan
4. Cohen, March and Olson
5. Fred Fiedler
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 5 1
(C) 4 5 3 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 45-46) The following two items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion’ (A) and the other as ‘Reason’ (R). Carefully examine these two statements and select the answers to these items using codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans : (B)
45. Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers shall be collective responsible to the House of People.
Reason (R) : The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of President.
Ans : (B)
46. Assertion (A) : Ordinances should be promulgated only where absolutely necessary. A responsible Government should be careful about it.
Reason (R) : It gives the executive a clear power to legislate and is an encroachment on the jurisdiction of the Parliament.
Ans : (C)
47. Who said that in the science of administration whether public or private, the basic good is efficiency ?
(A) Urwick
(B) Luther Gulick
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) J.D. Mooney
Ans : (C)
48. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Statements)
(a) Public Administration stand in danger of … senescence.
(b) That Public Administration is that lusty young giant of a decade ago, may now evaporate as a field.
(c) Public Administrationists as administrative Platonists.
(d) Public Administrationists has an uncomfortable and second class citizenship.
List-II (Authors)
1. Martin Landau
2. Paul Appleby
3. Waldo
4. F.M. Marx
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (D)
49. Who said that Politics has to do with policies or expression of State will while Administration has to do with the execution of these policies ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Goodnow
(C) Waldo
(D) J.M. Gaus
Ans : (A)
50. Who said that administration is knowledge, knowledge is power. Administration is power, this simplistic syllogism is major reality of our post-industrial age—
(A) James D. Carrol
(B) James Fallows
(C) Jimmy Carter
(D) John F. Kennedy
Ans : (A)
51. Organisation is the form of every human association for attainment of a common purpose. Who has given this definition ?
(A) Gulick
(B) James D. Mooney
(C) L.D. White
(D) Simon
Ans : (B)
52. Willy-nilly, administration is every one’s concern. If we wish to survive, we had better be intelligent about it. Who said it ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Adams Brooks
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Wallace B. Donham
Ans : (B)
53. While making comparison with private administration, who said that Public Administration is adrift with compass or anchor ?
(A) Simon
(B) Peter Self
(C) Paul Appleby
(D) Ludwig Von Mises
Ans : (D)
54. Which one is not characteristics of closed model of organisation ?
(A) Routine task
(B) Conflict within organization is adjusted by interaction with peers
(C) Task specialisation
(D) Means are emphasized
Ans : (B)
55. Which one of the following is not a driving paradigm of New Public Management ?
(A) Devolving authority
(B) Developing competition and choice
(C) Providing responsive service
(D) Emphasis on procedure
Ans : (D)
56. Public Management is merger of normative orientation of Traditional Public Administration and the instrumental orientation of general management. Who said it ?
(A) L.A. Gunn
(B) Perry and Kramer
(C) Christopher Hood
(D) Tullock
Ans : (B)
57. Who was the first present give red-tape its sociological baptism ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Herbert Spencer
(C) Sidney Smith
(D) Alexander Leighton
Ans : (A)
58. Who said that organisation is the machine of management in its achievement of the ends determined by administration ?
(A) William Schulze
(B) Oliver Sheldon
(C) Gladden
(D) Luthur Gulick
Ans : (A)
59. Which of the following is concerned with the modification of role expectancies and welding of divergent elements to preserve organisation integrity ?
(A) Galbraith’s Information Processing
(B) Bakke’s Fusion Process
(C) Duncan’s Decision Making Process
(D) Likert’s Group Theory
Ans : (B)
60. The older theory or organization is not science, as often claimed, but theology in sense that it is a set of beliefs accepted on faith, not on demonstration of empirical reality. Who has given this statement ?
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Earl Latham
(D) Elton Mayo
Ans : (B)
61. Hierarchy is the linchpin that locks the form. Who said it ?
(A) Allen Schick
(B) Earl Latham
(C) Golembiewski
(D) Stephen K. Bailey
Ans : (A)
62. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Organisation)
(a) Project Organisation
(b) Matrix Organisation
(c) Horizontal Organisation
(d) Network Organisation
List-II (Characteristics)
1. Existence of horizontal and diagonal relationship.
2. Facilitate co-operation, team work and customer orientation.
3. Independent Unit have a link with a web of other unit.
4. Project organisation plus a functional organisation.
5. Flexible to facilitate management change.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 5 2 3
(C) 5 2 1 3
(D) 2 4 5 3
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 63-72) The following 10 items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion’ (A) and the other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two state-ments carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
63. Assertion (A) : The Principle of Organisation is from the literature of Business Administration.
Reason (R) : There is larger area of overlapping interest and ideas between two fields, however, and in the matter of organizational analysis, Public Administration is heavily indebted of Business Administration.
Ans : (A)
64. Assertion (A) : Administration is a fine art.
Reason (R) : It summons an imposing body of special talents on behalf of a collaborative creation which is integral to the conduct of civilized living today.
Ans : (A)
65. Assertion (A) : Administration is now so vast an area that a philosophy of administration come close to being a philosophy of life.
Reason (R) : Administration is concerned with both ends and means.
Ans : (B)
66. Assertion (A) : Generalists play an important role in the policy function of the Government in India.
Reason (R) : A large number of top post in the Union and State Administrations are manned by the specialists.
Ans : (C)
67. Assertion (A) : The system approach is based on the concept that organisation should be studied as a whole because the behaviour of one part has a considerable impact on the others.
Reason (R) : The system approach ignores the infractions between a system and its environment.
Ans : (C)
68. Assertion (A) : The concept of civil service neutrality is changing in developing countries.
Reason (R) : Civil servants play a pivotal role in the developing countries.
Ans : (B)
69. Assertion (A) : Paul Appleby suggested two basic types of changes in administration constant and episodic.
Reason (R) : Constant change is reorganisation and episodic is incremental change.
Ans : (C)
70. Assertion (A) : The grapevine supplements the formal sources of information in the organisation. It has its usefulness in organisation life.
Reason (R) : It creates an actual system of relationship in the organisation which is vastly different from what is formally prescribe.
Ans : (B)
71. Assertion (A) : Administrative State is the name given to that State in which the executive branch is dominate one even though it has the legislature and the judiciary.
Reason (R) : The function Public Administration have expanded in scale, range and nature.
Ans : (B)
72. Assertion (A) : Open model theorists dislike the rigidity, the inflexibility, emphasis on means and anti-humanist view of bureaucracy.
Reason (R) : Close model theorists consider organisation as a fluid network structure.
Ans : (C)
73. ‘Bureaucracy is the term usually applied to a system of Government to control of which is so completely in the hands of officials that their power jeopardize the liberty of ordinary citizens.’
Who has given this statement ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Lord Hewart
(D) Betrand Russel
Ans : (A)
74. Which one is major role of formal organisation ?
(A) Satisfaction of member
(B) Profitability of enterprises
(C) Service to the society
(D) Harmonious relations in the organization
Ans : (B)
75. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Name of Writer)
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Arther F. Bentley
(c) David Easton
(d) Wright Mills
List-II (Book)
1. Big Democracy
2. The Power Elite
3. The Process of Government
4. The Political system
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (C)
76. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Name of Thinker)
(a) Maslow
(b) Alderfer
(c) Pareek
(d) Porter and Lawler
List-II (Theory)
1. Need Hierarchy Theory
2. Mixed Model
3. Performance Satisfaction Theory
4. ERG Theory
5. Integrated Theory of Work Motivation.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 5
(B) 1 4 5 3
(C) 1 3 5 2
(D) 1 4 5 2
Ans : (B)
77. A significant approach to communication event is based on Laswell formula, that deal with—
(A) Communication sequence
(B) Communication – interpretation modes
(C) Communication competence
(D) Communication control
Ans : (D)
78. Which one of following leadership styles permits substantial delegation of authority to subordinates and allows them to set objective and solve problems themselves ?
(A) Autocratic Leadership
(B) Democratic Leadership
(C) Permissive Leadership
(D) Visionary Leadership
Ans : (B)
79. The basis of influence in informal organisation is—
(A) Organisational position
(B) Person
(C) Authority
(D) Closeness with higher people
Ans : (B)
80. Which of the following book is called in apt text of Entrepreneurial Government ?
(A) Reinventing Government (David Osborne and Ted Gaeber)
(B) Government and Politics in Africa (Goren Hyden)
(C) A Public Management for all Seasons. (Christopher Hood)
(D) The Public Sector : Concept, Model and Approaches (Jan- Erik-Lan)
Ans : (A)
81. Which one of the following is not created by Act of Parliament ?
(A) University Grants Commission
(B) Backward Class Commission
(C) Atomic Energy Commission
(D) Railway Board
Ans : (D)
82. Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I (Book)
(a) Organisations
(b) Hand book of Organisations
(c) Organisations in Action
(d) Principles of Organization
List-II (Author)
1. March
2. Mooney and Reiley
3. James D Thompson
4. March and Simon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (D)
83. Which one of the following administrative theories is called Genric Management ?
(A) Bureaucratic
(B) Scientific Management
(C) Human Relations
(D) Administrative Management
Ans : (C)
84. Which of the following is defined as a process of analysing and collecting information relating to operation and responsibilities of a specific job ?
(A) Job description
(B) Job design
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job enlargement
Ans : (C)
85. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer—
List-I
(a) Veblen
(b) Dewey
(c) Warnotte
(d) Lord Hewart
List-II
1. Professional Deformation
2. Occupational Psychosis
3. The great game of politics
4. Trained incapacity
5. New Despotism
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 5
(B) 4 2 1 5
(C) 2 1 5 2
(D) 3 2 4 5
Ans : (B)
86. To whom the Union Public Service Commission presents its annual report as to work done by the Commission ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Council of Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) President
Ans : (D)
87. On which date the Governor of Rajasthan assented The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act ?
(A) April 23, 1994
(B) May 21, 1994
(C) July 12, 1994
(D) October 2, 1994
Ans : (A)
88. Consider the following advantages claimed by the Centre for All India Services—
1. Control over State Administration.
2. Uniformed and highly standard of recruitment and training.
3. Experience is beneficial to both Centre and State.
4. Develop all India out-look.
Which are correct in above ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (B)
89. When was the first Central Service Commission set up ?
(A) 1919
(B) 1926
(C) 1935
(D) 1937
Ans : (B)
90. Who had coined the term All India Service ?
(A) Aitchon Commission, 1887
(B) Committee on Division of Function, 1918
(C) Government of India, 1919
(D) Maxwell Committee, 1937
Ans : (B)
91. Who was called the Father of Local Self Government during British Rule ?
(A) Mayo
(B) Montagu
(C) Ripon
(D) Chelmsford
Ans : (C)
92. Which one is not mission of organisation development ?
(A) Improve the ability of individual member
(B) Avoid human emotions
(C) Reduce the tension
(D) Team management
Ans : (B)
93. For which of the following the President’s recommendation is required for introduction of Bill ?
(A) Bill for formation of new states and alternation of areas or name of existing State
(B) Money Bills
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of above
Ans : (C)
94. Which one of the following country first developed scientific method for recruitment ?
(A) Ancient India
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Britain
(D) China
Ans : (D)
95. ‘Administration is a moral act and administrator is a moral agent.’ Who said it ?
(A) Adm Brook
(B) Dimock
(C) C.A. Bernard
(D) Ordway Tead
Ans : (D)
96. Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act has made detailed provisions for Gram Sabha. Which Articles of above Act is related with Gram Sabha ?
(A) Article 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) Article 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
(C) Article 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
(D) Article 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
Ans : (C)
97. There will be one or more Vigilance Committees to supervise the functions, implementation of schemes and other activities of Gram Panchayat in Rajasthan. Who will constitute the Vigilance Committee ?
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) Panchayat Samiti
(D) Gram Sabha
Ans : (D)
98. The middle-tier of Panchayati Raj Institution in Rajasthan is Panchayat Samiti, which is composed by—
1. Direct elected members for Panchayat Samiti.
2. Sarpanchs of Village Panchayats.
3. Member of State Legislative Assembly whose constituency partly or fully come
under the area of Panchayat Samiti.
4. Nominated members.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, and 4
Ans : (A)
99. Consider the following with reference to Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act—
1. Direct Elections of members at all levels.
2. Reservation of seats for weaker-sections.
3. Direct Elections of all chairperson at all levels.
4. Elections are managed by State Election Commission.
Which of above are existed in Rajasthan ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (B)
100. The tenure system for Civil Services in India was started during the period of—
(A) Bentinck
(B) Cornwallis
(C) Curzon
(D) Montagu
Ans : (C)
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